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07-28-2013, 06:12 AM | #1 |
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Order of Books in old canons
Is there any good book or other source that clarifies how the order of the biblical books has developed over time and what various branches of different orders have existed in different places and times?
I realize there may very well be times and places where the order was not even considered - if you have each book occupying a scroll of its own, you may not consider there to be much of a reason to have an actual order to them. |
07-28-2013, 12:30 PM | #2 | ||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||||
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Prior to then, Alexandrian Jews had translated the books of the law into Greek in the 3rd century BCE. In the interim between the 3rd century BCE and the 4th century CE, Greek translations of the other books held sacred to the Jews were also made. Some of these translations were made from Hebrew books hat were not preserved in the Tanakh (e.g., Ben Sira), and others were composed in Greek (Bell, Susannah, etc). Except for the five books of the Law, I don't think they were organized in any special way, as they were transmitted individually. Starting around the 3rd or 4th century CE, Christians started publishing these Greek translations used by Jews in codex format. They called it the "Old Testament" and it was followed by the books of the Christian "New Testament." The books of the Christian "New Testament" usually followed the order we find in our modern bibles. The "Old Testament" books were ordered so that the book of the prophet Malachi (with a messianic prophesy) immediately preceded Matthew. The Christian books had already been circulating in smaller codices since the 2nd century CE. The books contained in these smaller codices were usually grouped as follows - the 4 gospels, the Pauline Letters, the book of Acts with the General Epistles, and Revelation all by itself. Modern editions of these books sometimes try to preserve the order usually found in manuscripts, or create their own orders. I gotta go, but below are the order of books in various modern bibles editions. RSV is the Revised Standard Version. LXA is the edition of the Septuagint published by Alfred Rahlfs. BGT is a combination of LXA plus the Nestle-Aland Greek NT. VUL is the Latin Vulgate. TNK is the Tanakh as Published by the Jewish Publication society. DCH
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07-29-2013, 01:29 AM | #3 |
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Thanks, but alas, you answered a lot of questions I didn't ask, with a lot of answers I already knew.
The reason I ask is relatively simple: I've seen the claim repeated in a few books that certain things in the NT are written as though they were intended to follow immediately on 'the last book of the OT' (and the point is made explicitly - the author actually labors under the oppression that the authors of Mark and Matthew opened the last book of the OT and tried making a sequel that would nicely tie in by means of obvious tie-ins to the previous installment in the series). The author is apparently unfamiliar with the fact that book order in the OT was not the same - or even more properly wasn't even a thing - in pre-Christian times. What I want is a proper source to refer to in my debunking. Finding a particular credible source that deals with this is a bit less easy though - it seems most serious authors on this issue assume most people are clever enough to work this out for themselves so they just don't go and say anything about it. What also makes it difficult is knowing whether patristic lists of canonic books are supposed to correlate to the order in which the church fathers considered the books to be, or the lists just had an order due to the fact that unordered lists are tricky to write. |
07-29-2013, 07:36 AM | #4 | ||
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First, do we need to suppose that desiring to "follow on" to a text contained in a canonical list would necessarily involve collecting all those texts in a single volume? I don't see it. In the first century AD all these books would be on a separate volume (roll / wax-tablets / sheet of parchment or papyrus / primitive codex). But this does not mean that the concept of a collection did not exist. And some idea of who the last prophets were ... surely this must have existed? (I don't really spend time with the OT, so others may know better). If so, it requires no more than the idea? The technology to produce a codex large enough to contain the whole OT did not exist prior to the 4th century. Whether partial collections existed before then in the papyrus codices of the 2nd and 3rd centuries I don't know; but it would hardly matter. I think you're engaged in exploring a mare's nest here. What is in your mind - and probably your correspondents - is the idea of a fixed list as in a table of contents, unchanged for centuries. But in antiquity we are well before any such bibliographic standardisations, because the technologies did not exist. And I really do not see how any valid theological argument -- and what on earth are you arguing about here? for it can't possibly show that either Christianity is true or false, or that living by societal values is true or false, whatever you determine on this issue -- can be based on this kind of stuff either way. Quote:
All the best, Roger Pearse |
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07-29-2013, 08:58 AM | #5 | ||||||||
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But, as I am no authority on the issue, referring to my own knowledge about the issue does not seem sufficient, and I would prefer to be able to refer to someone else's scholarly work on the topic. I am also more interested in the Old Testament canon. I think no one's quite getting that I just want to get the reasonable idea here *confirmed*, not question it or anything. Pretty much everything everyone's said here just agrees with my stances, and disagrees with the author I am criticizing. Yet everyone seems to be talking down to me. |
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07-29-2013, 09:11 AM | #6 |
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Just a parenthesis...
When the various Greek translations were put together in codices, Vaticanus seems to have ended with Daniel while Sinaiticus ended with Job. |
07-29-2013, 10:00 AM | #7 | |
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Would this question have anything to do with this controversy?
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07-29-2013, 12:06 PM | #8 |
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Toto, nope, my aim is at D.M. Murdock, viz. these two samples from Who Was Jesus - Fingerprints of the Christ:
"Moreover, even though it also appears to have been built upon Matthew in order to answer questions raised by that gospel, the beginning of Mark seems to have been written to follow directly the last Old Testament book of Malachi, since instead of the birth narrative, Mark begins his gospel with an account of John the Baptist, the "voice crying in the wilderness" and "the messenger" as prophesied "in the prophets," e.g., Malachi. (c.f. p. 69, p. 115)" "In the Old Testament (2 Kings 2:11), the esteemed Jewish prophet Elijah ended his earthly career by being taken up to heaven alive, such that "the Jews expected he would return just before the advent of the Messiah, whom he would prepare the minds of the Israelites to receive. In the last book before the New Testament, the prophet Malachi ("My messenger") says: "Remember the law of my servant Moses, the statutes and ordinances that I commanded him at Horeb for all Israel. Behold, I will send you Elijah the prophet before the great and terrible day of the Lord comes. And he will turn the hearts of the fathers to their children and the hearts of the children to their fathers, lest I come and smite the land with a curse." (Mai 4:4-5) Thus, in the biblical book, cahpter and verses directly preceding the gospel of Matthew it is said that Elijah would appear "before the great and terrible day of the Lord," ..." It is clear from these two samples - there's about three more in Christ in Egypt, one in The Christ Conspiracy and three in Suns of God - that Murdock is under the impression that the order you find in modern tables of contents for modern single-volume bibles has been meaningful and identical ever since 2nd temple judaism - she makes the argument that certain bits of the gospels were meant to directly follow "the last book of the OT", which indicates she thinks that the author really had the modern order in front of him and just worked in as many tie-ins to the previous book as possible. My argument is that if she is going to use that argument, she needs to convincingly show that Malachi actually was considered the last book in order of the OT (not just, say, last book as far as chronology goes), which she has not - she has just gone on a naive assumption. It seems clear other orders were in use in early Christianity - as shown at the link you provided - http://www.biblelight.net/hebrew-canon.htm .* I know this is a minor detail, but the number of times she keeps calling things 'illogical' even when they're not per se illogical, I feel mandates thoroughness in debunking. In general, WWJ-FoC is much better than The Christ Conspiracy or The Suns of God as far as facts go, but sometimes the reasoning does not add up - even when she makes claims that are probably correct. However, unlike the two other books I mentioned, WWJ-FoC makes significantly weaker claims as well, most claims being stuff most atheists would agree with except possibly the underlying logic on a few counts. |
07-29-2013, 04:07 PM | #9 | |
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εὐδαιμονία | eudaimonia |
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07-30-2013, 07:25 AM | #10 |
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Given that the book prior to the first gospel in both C. Sinaiticus and C. Vaticanus is not Malachi and the last book in the Tanak isn't Malachi either, you should be able to force a "cough up the ancient evidence for the claim or shut up."
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