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05-29-2013, 09:51 AM | #1 | ||
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First, the Christken or the Easter Egg? Relation of Religious Belief to Conclusions
Which came first, the Christken or the Easter Egg? Relationship between level of religious belief and conclusions. Test case = Authorship of "Mark" ("Mark" me words).
JW: Skeptics have long concluded (for about 2,000 years I think) that there may be a relationship between a person's level of religious belief and conclusions they hold regarding the religion they have. Skeptics also believe that corporeal people who are considered Bible scholars are also persons. The purpose of this Thread will be: 1) To identify Bible Scholars who have positions as to the author of "Mark".To the extent there is a demonstrated relationship that would suggest that conclusions on the subject are that much influenced by religious belief. At an extreme, if there is a strong relationship, that may mean that the primary reason for a conclusion is religious belief rather than evidence. So what is the evidence here? For starters I'll throw out (so to speak) R.T. France's The Gospel of Mark from NIGTC, which I think Traditional Christian Bible scholarship would consider one of the best commentaries on "Mark" ever. I disagree of course but would still consider it a great book, based on details and evidence presented. Conclusions though are a different story (again, so to speak): 1) To identify Bible Scholars who have positions as to the author of "Mark". R. T. France 2) To measure the extent of these Bible Scholar's belief in Christianity. R.T. France Quote:
3) To measure these Bible Scholars level of conclusion as to a likely known author of "Mark". Page 41: Quote:
4) To analyze the relationship between 2) and 3). Too early to do that until we get more data. So, let the inventory begin. Of the Bible Scholars inhabiting these unholy Boards, spin, Professor Jeffrey Gibson etc., what are their levels of belief in Christianity and John Mark being the author of "Mark"? Joseph SCRIPTURES, n. The sacred books of our holy religion, as distinguished from the false and profane writings on which all other faiths are based ErrancyWiki |
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05-29-2013, 06:52 PM | #2 | |
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When Peter Kirby was active here, he seemed to think that the author of Mark might very well have been named "Mark." I think that the commentary on earlychristianwritings.com reflects his thinking:
Gospel of Mark Quote:
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05-30-2013, 04:12 AM | #3 |
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I think it was John actually who made all these mark's as forshadow for his own Gospel to make the opposites known that I would call the difference between heaven and hell.
To me gMark is just loaded with anti-christ lines that makes it pigfeed at best, but good nonetheless. |
05-31-2013, 08:29 AM | #4 | ||
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JW:
Let's go to the other side of religious beliefs from Rector R.T. France to Dr. Richard Carrier who has none: The Formation of the New Testament Canon (2000) Quote:
Quote:
Since this article was written Dr. Carrier has graduated (so to speak) to MJ. Since Dr. Carrier now believes there was no Jesus, he would also believe that there were no Disciples of Jesus. And if there were no Disciples of Jesus, than there were no "traveling companions" of Disciples of Jesus. So we can safely mark Dr. Carrier as a No John Mark here. [irony] I find it interesting that Bart Ehrman, the greatest Textual Critic of all time, started out Fundamentalist, and than turned Agnostic as a result of his study of Textual Criticism. Likewise, Dr. Carrier, the greatest Bible Historian of all time, turned MJ as a result of his study of Biblical Historical Criticism.[/irony] So, one Bible Scholar who is a clergy/Traditional Christian who concludes John Mark wrote "Mark" and one Bible Historian Atheist who concludes John Mark did not write "Mark". Are there any other Bible Scholars who have an opinion as to whether John Mark wrote "Mark"? Joseph ErrancyWiki |
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06-01-2013, 01:00 AM | #5 | |||
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Quote:
Papias writes from the position of someone preferring oral tradition to written sources. The idea that Mark is an unauthorised version of Peter's teaching and Matthew an unauthorised version of an Aramaic original are probably intended to justify Papias' preference for oral tradition. Andrew Criddle |
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06-01-2013, 09:28 AM | #6 | ||
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You seem completely unaware that Scholars have rejected the claims of Papias. There was probably no such character called Mark who wrote any Gospel. All the Gospels are really from anonymous sources and were not referenced until "Against Heresies" by Irenaeus who publicly declared Jesus was crucified c 48-50 [about 20 years after the 15th year of Tiberius] which was stated by John and the other Apostles. Irenaeus contradicted Papias. [Against Heresies 2.22] Quote:
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06-01-2013, 10:34 AM | #7 | |||
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Like Dennis in the classic Sponge Bob Square Pants movie, perhaps Dr. Carrier has said too much. But critical scholarship in general, does see lots of "Nos" (nothing left out, no changes, not in order) as evidence of apology, yes? (disclaimer - Professor Gibson should be consulted as to specifics of the Biblical Greek here). I'm intentionally trying to avoid discussion of whether John Mark was the author of "Mark" so as not to distract from this Thread's primary objective of measuring the relationship between a Bible Scholar's position on the issue and the Bible Scholar's level of religious belief. But that may prove too tempting to resist. Anyway, you have complied with my primary objective and voted - that John Mark is the author of "Mark". On a scale of level of religious belief, I would guess you are Traditional/Mainstream? Related to this I would think that if one is other than a Liberal Christian they would almost be required to think that not only did "Mark" have a source of eyewitness but that eyewitness can be identified. For those who need points sharply explained (like Adam), a Traditional, Conservative, Fundamental Christian would be required to have a conclusion that the original Gospel has a source of a known eyewitness. This baptizes the question, which comes first? Joseph ErrancyWiki |
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06-02-2013, 05:53 AM | #8 | |
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Can I just add that I voted John Mark because I think a/ that the Gospel of Mark was written by the Mark mentioned in the epistles and b/ that this Mark is the John Mark in Acts. However I think it possible but unlikely that the Mark in Acts is different from the Mark in the epistles. Andrew Criddle |
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06-02-2013, 06:14 AM | #9 |
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Coincidentally I recently read the essay by Carrier cited by Joe in #4.
And the thought passed through my mind whether he would write it differently today. Not so much because he has changed to the 'dark side' or, as Joe puts it "Since this article was written Dr. Carrier has graduated (so to speak) to MJ." but as a result of his attempts to put a date on Ignatius and the insurmountable difficulties he encountered and which he detailed in a very interesting article some time ago [I can't find it on his blog site, its the one in which he reports to those who support his book writing and he explains the delay as arising from the the difficulties in getting solid facts on early Christianity - maybe someone can find it]. We really are treading heavily in quicksand. Edit: I found Carrier's article http://richardcarrier.blogspot.com.a...-vexation.html Worth a read. |
06-02-2013, 08:08 AM | #10 | |
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JW:
Switching back to the "other" side, let those who have ayes hear from the late, great, downtond, Raymond Brown: An Introduction To The New Testament p. 159 [bold mine] Quote:
Brown is long on evidence and you have to beat conclusions out of him but I think he doubted that John Mark wrote "Mark". Religious wise, he was a Catholic Priest, and I would classify his level of belief as Traditional/Mainstream. Joseph ErrancyWiki |
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