mark9950

in spanish is pronounced hey soos but is spelled jesus.

Anyone know about why this is?Or how it came about?

Secular Pinoy

I believe the letter j is pronounced as h in spanish. Here in the Philippines, we rarely use j, and would spell Jesus as Hesus, unless we're writing in English, in which case we'd spell it (and pronounce it) as Jesus.

Spaz

Where the hell did the name jesus come from anyways? wasn't the actual jewish name yeshua? so it was like joshua? Who the hell made it Jesus?

Ihatecheese

It has to do with the H infliction. In 1312 the Spanish without consent started to become very sexy, everyone wanted them. So as punishment God proclaimed that they could no longer pray to Jesus so in turn they replied
' we will make him sexy'
Hence "Hesus"
Works for me
Unless of course you are serious in which case read read read.
It can only benefit

Magus55

Yeshua is hebrew, Jesus is the greek spelling of Yeshua.

Spaz

If the hebrew is yeshua (I'm taking that yeshua is being written that way as an english translation and therefore being pronounced "yeh shwah") Then how is the greek equivalent pronounced "Jee zuhs"? And why would it not be better to call him yeshua being that was his hebrew name? (since he definitely wouldn't be greek)

Peter Kirby

I don't know anything about Hebrew or Aramaic, so I won't comment on that.

Here is the name in Greek (nominative case):

ιησους

Pronounced: EAsüs

E as ea in easy
A as a in ace
s as in s
ü as oo in loot

Here is the name in Latin: Iesus.

Note that the J, as a separate character from the I, is only a few centuries old. The English "Jesus" is derived from the Latin perhaps by way of French.

best,
Peter Kirby

Toto

The Hebrew was Joshua. Jesus was supposed to have spoken Aramaic, a language related to Hebrew, and the Aramaic form was pronounced Yeshua. (The Jews for Jesus make a point of calling Jesus Yeshua.)

Greek does not have a -sh- sound, so Yeshua becomes Iesua, or Iesous.

Some people take this very seriously:
Hebrew Roots teaching

The interesting question is: why does the English translation of the Bible use Joshua for the Old Testament figures and Jesus for the New Testament, when the underlying name is exactly the same, and was understood as the same name by every Hebrew, Aramaic, or Greek speaker of the time?

Derec

Old Testament was written in Hebrew, New Testament in Greek. So most of the Old Testament names remained in their Hebrew form when translated.
One interesting anomaly is that of Moses, which is Greek version of Moshe.

UMoC

Spaz

Alright, thanks for the explanation.