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07-16-2002, 08:25 AM | #1 |
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Church and state separation?
In the wake of reaction to the 9th circuit court ruiling on the pledge of allegiance, some articles in newspapers have mentioned how there are people who argue that church-state separation was only meant to prevent the government from establishing a state or national church. That's all.
By reading the myriad of opinions of members here, it is clear that you think church-state separation goes even farther than this, so far to even prevent the words "under God" from the pledge of allegiance as well as fighting the public posting of the Ten Commandments. My question is - what historical basis is there for this board's general idea of sincere church-state separation? Many opponents of the pledge ruiling have indeed used the argument that the founding fathers only wanted to prevent an established national church and religion. They did not want the removal of religious symbols from public and related things. So, where does the historical evidence point? |
07-16-2002, 08:38 AM | #2 | |
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From <a href="http://www.au.org/myths.htm" target="_blank">here</a>:
Quote:
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07-16-2002, 08:43 AM | #3 |
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Well, if I wanted to establish a national church, one important step would be the frequent use of that church's symbols in the government.
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07-16-2002, 08:48 AM | #4 |
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MassAtheist,
Since that information is from American's United, I doubt any church-state skeptics will take it seriously. Such skeptics will only argue their interpretation of the founding fathers who "founded this nation on Christian principles." RRH, Well, if I wanted to establish a national church, one important step would be the frequent use of that church's symbols in the government. If I recall, the only relevant point is that congress opens with a prayer. This is not a religious symbol, but it is a religious action. How is this unconstitutional? |
07-16-2002, 09:15 AM | #5 |
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<strong>Wrote Secular Elation:
If I recall, the only relevant point is that congress opens with a prayer. This is not a religious symbol, but it is a religious action. How is this unconstitutional?</strong> I'd say it's strictly not. Elected officials are simply a sample of the population. They're not required, as individuals, to represent or respect all political and religious viewpoints of the constituency. They can ask for guidance from the IPU (PBUHHA) for all the Constitution cares. They can draft laws based on Scripture, Hammurabi, Sagan Asimov, or whoever else has written about codes-of-conduct for all the Constitution cares. They just can't use their governmental status to promote or disparage any religion or non-religion. |
07-16-2002, 10:34 AM | #6 | ||||
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Quote:
In any case, your original question was: Quote:
Quote:
Quote:
I think that the explicit rejection of language that would have prevented only a national establishment shows clearly that the framers intended the prohibition to be broader in scope. |
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07-16-2002, 02:01 PM | #7 |
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Secular Relation
Once again I will post the source I use to quiet the abundance of misinfermation being generated about this issue. "The Complete Bill of Rights: The Drafts, Debates, Sources, & Origins" edited by Neil H . Cogan, Oxford University Press, 1997 (ISBN 0-19-510322-X) Chapter 1 AMENDMENT I Establishment and Free Exercise Clauses (Pgs. 1-82) The information found in those pages is not guesswork or opinion. If the folks who are challenging the Church-State separation meaning wish to put their money where their mouth is, I feel sure you could make a nice living off them by having a copy of this book with which to challenge their opinions. MassAtheist attempted to cut-down the AU statement to make it easier to relate to these people who would question the source. I can not abbreviate 82 pages of 9 1/4" x 7 1/4" information in order to satisfy them...nor will I...without charging them for my valuable time and knowledge. That book cost me over $80.00. It sources every item. It is not easy to use, but is the most accurate available regarding what was said, why, and by whom (in their own words where ever recorded) at the actual time this part of the Amendment was being drafted. If they claim to have a more accurate source of knowledge about this issue, that is another challenge I would gleefully make...betting that they don't. Many opponents of the pledge ruiling have indeed used the argument that the founding fathers only wanted to prevent an established national church and religion. They did not want the removal of religious symbols from public and related things. Specifically, whose/which religious symbols should the elected government(s) display in public? Specifically, whose/what related things. Each Sect, and many of the denominations of those Sects, have very specific symbols and "related" things. Which ones should the "federal republic government" support by displaying them in public? Aren't thay already displayed in public all across this country...though on non-taxed, private, religious facilities and property. Perhaps they wouldn't mind if the government started taxing religion instead of already giving it a free ride at "everyone's" expense. |
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