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Old 11-05-2002, 12:34 PM   #41
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Quote:
Originally posted by luvluv:
<strong>Well, I am engaging in some rigorous self-education, but I haven't gotten to some of the books Lowder mentioned yet. I'm going through Plantinga's books now, so I understand a lot more of this stuff than I used to. Have some patience with the new guy!

At any rate, if I'm wrong I'm sure that will be made abundantly clear.</strong>
No one faults someone who is trying to become self-educated on these matters. But I have little tolerance for someone who <strong>both</strong> makes sweeping claims about atheist morality <strong>and</strong>, by their own admission, is not well-educated about morality in general. Please do your research first, ask questions (do not make unsupported assertions), and then post an argument here.

Jeffery Jay Lowder
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Old 11-05-2002, 12:35 PM   #42
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Well, I am engaging in some rigorous self-education, but I haven't gotten to some of the books Lowder mentioned yet. I'm going through Plantinga's books now, so I understand a lot more of this stuff than I used to. Have some patience with the new guy!

At any rate, if I'm wrong I'm sure that will be made abundantly clear.
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Old 11-05-2002, 12:47 PM   #43
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Please re-read what I wrote. I wrote "ONTOLOGICALLY prior," not TEMPORALLY prior. In my sentence, "prior" has nothing to do with time. My point was that the standard of moral goodness is not dependent upon God's existence.
How would that alter the fact that if an omniscient being believed something to be valuable, it would, by definition, actually be valuable. Not necessarily because he believed it, but because it is by definition impossible for him to hold a false belief.
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Old 11-05-2002, 12:50 PM   #44
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Luvluv,

NO problem in the slack department, but don't get too upset if those who are more educated on the subject deconstruct your "arguments" in the mean time.

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Old 11-05-2002, 12:50 PM   #45
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luvluv:

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Eventually, all moral premises will break down, as Pomp has said, to some ultimate state of value. Such things as "I value my own existence" or "I value my self-interest".
Or I value what God values.
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Old 11-05-2002, 12:51 PM   #46
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Quote:
Originally posted by luvluv:
<strong>Well, to be an objectivist the atheist does have to create two new entities called "right" and "wrong" and he has to explain how they came to exist independantly of human thought.</strong>
This misses the point completely. We both agree that physical properties exist. We both agree that moral properties exist. (I consider them physical properties while you [apparently] consider them supernatural properties.) You claim that God exists while I do not. That is why a belief in God, unlike a belief in moral properties, requires belief in one extra type of entity.

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<strong>If you are under the impression that I am arguing that atheism and morality are incompatible you would be incorrect. If I said that that would be a misstatement of my actual position, which is that morality cannot be RATIONALLY JUSTIFIED by atheism. All the arguments for the actual existence of a moral code that anyone should adhere to fall to the same objections that proofs for God's existence fall to,</strong>
This is not only fallacious, but prepostorous. The arguments for moral realism are not susceptible to the same objections as the arguments for God's existence. If you disagree, then provide an example of an objection to God's existence that is also an objection to the arguments for moral realism.

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<strong>so if an atheist is to be consistent he should disbelieve in all moral claims.</strong>
I thought you just said above, "If you are under the impression that I am arguing that atheism and morality are incompatible you would be incorrect." Now you are saying that a "consistent" atheist "should disbelieve in all moral claims." So which is your position?

Quote:
<strong>That is to say, if an atheist rejects God because there is no rational justification for his existence, he should also reject any system of morality, because they have no rational justification for their existence either.</strong>
This is fallacious. John Post has given an argument for moral realism that answers this argument. I again refer you to Post's argument.

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<strong> think I'm being misunderstood. I am not saying that atheism itself is necessarily inconsistent with objective morality. I'm saying the ATHEIST is being inconsistent IF AND ONLY IF he rejects God's existence on empiricists (sic) and/or rationalist grounds AND he accepts the existence of a binding, existent moral code BECAUSE the moral code can no more be empirically or rationally justified than can the existence of God.</strong>
That is not equivalent to what you wrote earlier, "All the arguments for the actual existence of a moral code that anyone should adhere to fall to the same objections that proofs for God's existence fall to, so if an atheist is to be consistent he should disbelieve in all moral claims."

(Snipping a terribly confused paragraph about the relationship between atheism and values.)

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<strong>Now, could you be happy living in a world where children were made into lampshades? Because making children into lampshades is, rationally, perfectly consistent with atheism.</strong>
So what? Lots of things are logically "consistent" with atheism, but atheism is just one part of an atheist's worldview. A complete worldview specifies beliefs about metaphysics, ethics, etc. There are many different worldviews that are compatible with atheism. "Making children into lampshades" is not compatible with the worldview of secular humanism. Nor is it compatible with any atheist worldview that includes a commitment to moral realism.

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<strong>Fine, now all Quentin Smith has to do is prove moral realism is true. I wish him luck.

Otherwise, his asking me to simply believe in moral realism without justification is equivalent to me asking you to believe in God. If you can't do one honestly, you can't do the other.</strong>
This is a silly reply. Since you have not even bothered to read Smith's book, you are literally in no position to assess his arguments.

Frankly, I don't see any point in considering this exchange with you. This will be my last post in reply to you.

Jeffery Jay Lowder
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Old 11-05-2002, 12:54 PM   #47
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I'd be insulted if they did any less, brighid.
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Old 11-05-2002, 01:09 PM   #48
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jlowder:

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We both agree that moral properties exist.
I'm not sure what you mean? Do you mean we both agree that right and wrong exist? Well, that's an interesting fact about us, but we haven't proven they exist. In point of fact, in the interests of this argument I have made no such concession. I have been asking you for rational justification of these issues if I assume they don't exist. There are many atheists, obviously, who believe that right and wrong don't exist. How would you go about proving the existence of them?


Quote:
This is not only fallacious, but prepostorous. The arguments for moral realism are not susceptible to the same objections as the arguments for God's existence. If you disagree, then provide an example of an objection to God's existence that is also an objection to the arguments for moral realism.
Okay, are you under the impression that any of the arguments for moral realism are sound? That's my point.

Quote:
I thought you just said above, "If you are under the impression that I am arguing that atheism and morality are incompatible you would be incorrect." Now you are saying that a "consistent" atheist "should disbelieve in all moral claims." So which is your position?
That moral subjectivism, at least, is compatible with atheism, but cannot be rationally justified by atheism. I said it's only inconsistent if you disbelieve in God BECAUSE a belief in him cannot be justified rationally or empirically, because moral subjectivism cannot be justified by those means either.


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This is fallacious. John Post has given an argument for moral realism that answers this argument. I again refer you to Post's argument.
Is this on the other thread?

Quote:
That is not equivalent to what you wrote earlier, "All the arguments for the actual existence of a moral code that anyone should adhere to fall to the same objections that proofs for God's existence fall to, so if an atheist is to be consistent he should disbelieve in all moral claims."
All I meant by that was that they were all unsound.

Quote:
So what? Lots of things are logically "consistent" with atheism, but atheism is just one part of an atheist's worldview. A complete worldview specifies beliefs about metaphysics, ethics, etc. There are many different worldviews that are compatible with atheism. "Making children into lampshades" is not compatible with the worldview of secular humanism. Nor is it compatible with any atheist worldview that includes a commitment to moral realism.
Fine, but neither secular humanism nor moral realism can be rationally justified within an atheist framework. If an atheist who was not a secular humanist or a moral realist confronted an atheist who was both, the moral realist could not rationally justify his moral realism.

Quote:
This is a silly reply. Since you have not even bothered to read Smith's book, you are literally in no position to assess his arguments.
I'm sorry if you think this is silly, but the fact remains. Of course if moral realism is true life would have objective meaning, the point is to establish how moral realism could possibly be true. That's a very common sensical objection.

Sorry to see you go. You know, if I'm ignorant correct me. I might be a little brash, and if so I apologize, but the best revenge would be to put me in my place, not to leave.

Valmorian:


Quote:
Value is subjective, so what is valuable to a being doesn't by definition make it valuable to everyone, just to that being. Whether that being is omniscient or not is irrelevant.

Either that, or of course you beg the question by assuming there is something that would be valued by everyone.
I think you're begging the question by saying value is subjective. That is what is at question here. If God were to say of something not "I value this" but "This is rightly valued" then the value of this thing would be established by virtue of the definition of omniscience. If an omniscient God holds the belief "x is valuable" then "x is valuable" must be true, because it is impossible for an omniscient God to hold a false belief.

K:

First off, what's up? Haven't talked to you in a while.

Quote:
Or I value what God values.
Well, again, it's not that God values it, but that an omniscient God holds the belief that something IS valuable.

[ November 05, 2002: Message edited by: luvluv ]</p>
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Old 11-05-2002, 01:33 PM   #49
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luvluv:

Not much. I haven't been around too much lately. When I have, it's been mostly in Philosophy and EoG. How've you been?

Quote:
Well, again, it's not that God values it, but that an omniscient God holds the belief that something IS valuable.
OK, I'll change it to:

I value it because I believe that "an omniscient God holds the belief that something IS valuable."

It's still a reduced to a value judgement. There hasn't been any reason given to believe that valuing what God believes is any more firmly grounded than valuing self-preservation.

If valuing one's own quality of life on earth is not a rational basis for one's behavior, how can valuing the quality of life in the afterworld be any more rational?

BTW, I don't believe in objective morality. I believe that behavior that we define as moral is the result of survival instincts that evolved over time.
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Old 11-05-2002, 01:35 PM   #50
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Jlowder:

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This is fallacious. John Post has given an argument for moral realism that answers this argument. I again refer you to Post's argument.
Well, is this Post's argument?

Quote:
The argument, in a nutshell, is that any statement that says some action A is morally wrong points towards a belief in moral realism. In other words, ordinary language points against the view that morality is subjective, where some action like murder could be "wrong for you" but "okay for me."
His formal argument is based on common statements people make? How does that establish the reality of moral realism? Animals don't use those terms and do not have organized systems of morality. How do we now we're right and there wrong. Essentially, this boils down to just what I said it does "Moral realism is true because we believe it is". That is a value-statement and not a rational justification. It provides very weak evidence for the proposition, but falls way short of rational justification.

Frankly, this sounds like a complete rip from C.S. Lewis's Mere Christianity.

Respectfully, of course.
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