FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > IIDB ARCHIVE: 200X-2003, PD 2007 > IIDB Philosophical Forums (PRIOR TO JUN-2003)
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 05:55 AM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 05-21-2003, 12:00 AM   #1
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: Los Angeles, CA
Posts: 2,635
Default How did the Gospel of Mark end?

A recent post asked about the ending of the Gospel of Mark. Here are some thoughts on the issue.

I. The Modern Ending of Mark is Not Original

Almost all scholars, whether conservative or liberal, agree that the ending of Mark common to modern English versions -- Mark 16:9-20 -- was not a part of the original text. The reason for such a strong consensus twofold.

The first is that the oldest manuscripts lack verses 9-20. As Donald Guthrie, notes, "[t]he two Alexandrian Unical Mss, Vaticanus and Sinaiticus" end at 16:8. New Testament Introduction, at 90. Additionally, early Christian writers noted that the ending was not in their earliest manuscripts. "Jerome and Eusebius both state that the best manuscripts available to them did not contain this longer ending." Douglass Moo, An Introduction to the New Testament, at 103. Given the lack of early manuscript evidence, it is very unlikely that these verses were original to the text.

The second reason, though perhaps unnecessary, is that there are significant linguistic and stylistic differences between 9-20 and the rest of Mark. Simply put, "[t]he longer ending contains several non-Markan words and expressions." Moo, at 103.

As a result of these two facts, "[t]oday it is generally recognized that the report of the Resurrection and Ascension (16:9-20) found in the majority of the manuscripts and versions was not a part of the original Mark." W.G. Kummel, Introduction to the New Testament, at 71. Where then, did the modern ending of Mark come from? Most likely later scribes added endings based on how they "knew" the story ended by relying on Matthew, Luke, and, perhaps, John. "The resemblances between what is narrated in these verses and the narrative of Jesus' resurrection appearances in other gospels suggest that this longer ending was composed on the basis of these other narratives to supplement what was felt to be an inadequate ending to the gospel." Moo, at 103.

II. Mark's Original Ending

A more disputed question than whether verses 9-20 were the original ending to Mark is whether Mark ended at verse 8 or had a longer ending that, for whatever reason, was lost. The immediately apparent reason that such a theory occurs to readers of Mark is the fact that an ending at verse 8 seems remarkably abrupt.

Mark 16:1-8:

Quote:
When the Sabbath was over, Mary Magdalene, and Mary the mother of James, and Salome, bought spices, so that they might come and anoint Him. Very early on the first day of the week, they came to the tomb when the sun had risen. They were saying to one another, "Who will roll away the stone for us from the entrance of the tomb?" Looking up, they saw that the stone had been rolled away, although it was extremely large. Entering the tomb, they saw a young man sitting at the right, wearing a white robe; and they were amazed. And he said to them, "Do not be amazed; you are looking for Jesus the Nazarene, who has been crucified. He has risen; He is not here; behold, here is the place where they laid Him. "But go, tell His disciples and Peter, 'He is going ahead of you to Galilee; there you will see Him, just as He told you.'" They went out and fled from the tomb, for trembling and astonishment had gripped them; and they said nothing to anyone, for they were afraid.
A. Did Mark Believe in the Resurrection?

The difference between an ending at v. 8 and the endings we are used to from the extended Marcan ending and Matthew, Luke, and John is striking. There are no resurrection appearances by a risen Jesus.

Although some have seized on this as somehow proving that Mark--and, in an even greater leap, early Christianity--had no tradition of resurrection appearances, such a conclusion is untenable. For the same reasons, it is untenable to suggest that Mark did not believe in the resurrection. That the early Christians had traditions of, and greatly valued, the resurrection appearances of Jesus is made clear by Paul's own letters. Not only does 1 Corinthians 15 establish this beyond dispute, but Paul's entire conversion story is based on a resurrection appearance of Jesus. Moreover, Mark clearly knows of and values traditions about Jesus' resurrection appearances as well. He foretells Jesus' resurrection throughout the gospel. He writes of the empty tomb just as the other gospels do. And, in verse 7, Mark has a messenger of God tell Mary and the other women that Jesus has risen and will appear to the disciples in Galilee, just as Jesus had foretold. Accordingly, Mark's belief in Jesus' resurrection, as well as his belief in Jesus' resurrection appearances, are not in serious doubt.

B. A Greek Tragedy?

Still, some argue that Mark's story is one of disappointment. Of raised hopes and expectations that go unmet. A Greek tragedy perhaps. He raises expectations of great hope and accomplishment, only to have them end in failure and hopelessness. There is no merit to such arguments. Not only does Mark clearly believe in the resurrection, but the entire purpose of his Gospel is to spread good news. Remember, Mark opens on a tremendously upbeat note: " The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God." Mark 1:1. As most of you probably know, the greek word for gospels -- euaggelion -- actually means "Good News." In other words, Mark declares that the purpose of his writing is to declare the "Good News" about Jesus Christ. It is also clear that, to Mark, Jesus' resurrection was the culmination of his Good News. Throughout his Gospel Mark predicts the resurrection. He leads us to the empty tomb. And he specifically announces that Jesus will appear to the disciples and others in Galilee. Clearly, therefore, Mark believed in Jesus' resurrection. Knew about traditions of his appearances after his resurrection.

Quote:
The comparison with Greco-Roman tragedies is quite beside the point. Mark's Gospel is about tragedy transfigured and transformed into triumph. It is about good news triumphing over and through the suffering and resurrection of Jesus and over and even through the disciples' desertions and misunderstandings. Mark's narrative is not a play to be enacted but a story to be read about the good news of Jesus. 'They fled in fear and said nothing to anyone' may suit the ending of a tragedy, but not a laudatory biographical Gospel.
Ben Witherington, The Gospel of Mark, A Socio-Rhetorical Commentary, at 415 n. 14.

C. An Incomplete Ending

Given that Mark was aware of traditions involving Jesus' resurrection appearances, sought to impart knowledge of Jesus' resurrection, and intended to convince his readers that this was "Good News," it is unlikely that he leaves us at verse 8. It might be more understandable, though still unlikely, that he ended at verse 7, with an announcement of the resurrection and the foretold resurrection appearances. But that is not how this proposed close of Mark ends. It actually ends with the women departing in fear and telling no one.

Quote:
An ancient biography of one's heros is most unlikely to end in this fashion. It probably does not imply a total and eternal silence of these women, disobeying the command of the angel. If we note the parallel construction of v. 8 in the Greek, it suggests that we should take seriously the imperfect verb tenses and relate the two sentences, which each follow kai, as well as the two yap clauses. The implication would be that, for the circumscribed period of time the women were in terror and fled from the tomb, they say said nothing to anyone. Naturally, the fear would at some point subside, and the women would cease to be tongue-tied at that juncture.... [H]ad Mark wanted to suggest that they disobeyed the command given to them, he would have introduced their activity with an adversative such as de, not with kai, for every other place we have disobedience as a response in Mark it is introduced with de (cf. 1:45; 7:36; 10:14, 22, 28; 15:23, 37).
Witherington, at 415-17.

The abrupt ending cannot easily be explained away. Even those scholars who maintain that verse 8 was the original ending of Mark are pressed to explain why the author would have ended the Gospel here.

Luke Timothy Johnson, who tends to reject the idea of an extended ending, nevertheless explains the problem of that idea concisely.

Quote:
A puzzling finale it is. The women approach with amazement (16:5) and leave in fear (16:8). They do not pass on the message of a future appearance. The identity of the young man who delivers the message to them is unspoken (16:5). What are we to make of this? Mark obviously believes Jesus was raised from the dead, but 'goes before them.' He will appear, but at his own choosing. But if Mark and his readers knew traditions of Jesus' having appeared--traditions, we have seen already, that are very old (see 1 Cor. 15:3-8)--then why didn't he narrate them?
His answer? "We can only guess."

Johnson, The Writings of the New Testament, at 154.

Perhaps the best attempted explanation as to why Mark might have ended his gospel where he did is provided by William L. Lane: "the present ending of Mark is thoroughly consistent with the motifs of astonishment and fear developed throughout the Gospel. These motifs express the manner in which Mark understands the events of Jesus' life." The Gospel of Mark, at 591.

The problem with this argument is that, while it might explain why Mark includes verse 8, it does not explain as to why Mark ends there. Mark could convey the sense of astonishment and fear and continue to complete what he started by including references to Jesus' resurrection appearances. Moreover, even if this point had some merit, it does so at the expense of Mark's overriding sense of fulfilled promise. While fear and astonishment are important aspects of Mark's gospel, the overriding message is the Good News of fulfilment. God has fulfilled his promise to Israel and to humanity. Over and over again Mark has a character predict or describe a future event, and he thereafter describes its fulfillment. Fulfilment, therefore, goes to the very heart of Mark's Gospel.

This is especially important when it comes to the ending of Mark. In verse 7, the messenger of God makes an important prediction: "You will see Him." Moreover, the messenger makes it clear that the appearances of Jesus were predicted by Jesus himself: "Just as He told you." That Mark would have left these predictions unfulfilled, or fulfilled only by implication, is unthinkable.

This point is most persuasively made by Robert Gundry:

Quote:
Mark has repeatedly and in detail narrated the fulfillments of Jesus' to other predictions so far as those fulfillments, occurred during Jesus' time on earth.... They include the seeing of God's kingdom as having come with power at the Transfiguration, the finding of a colt, some disciples' being met by a man carrying a jar of water, the showing of the Upper Room, the betrayal of Jesus by one of the Twelve, the scattering of the rest of the Twelve, the scattering of the rest of the Twelve, the denials of Jesus by Peter, and of course the Passion (including numerous details predicted by Jesus) and the Resurrection. Though Mark has quoted Jesus as predicting events to take place later, particularly just before the future coming of the Son of man and that coming itself, there remains one prediction whose fulfillment is to take place while Jesus is still on earth, the prediction in 14:28 that after his resurrection he will go ahead of the disciples into Galilee. At 16:7 the young man in the empty tomb recalled this prediction and added it to both the enhancement, 'and there you will see him,' and an allusion to the reliability of Jesus' word: 'according as he told you.' It seems highly unlikely that Mark has included not only that prediction in its original setting but also a recollection of the prediction and two additions to it, the first one enhancing it, the second calling attention to its reliability (cf. the repetitions and elaborations of the passion-and-resurrection predictions in 8:31; 9:9, 12, 31; 10:32-34) only to omit a narrative of its fulfillment even though this fulfilment, like the others that he has narrated, took place during Jesus' time on earth.
Robert H. Gundry, Mark, A Commentary on His Apology for the Cross, at 1009-10.

Confirmation of any theory is unlikely to be forthcoming. However, it seems, on balance, that an ending at verse 8 is unlikely. Mark's entire gospel is about fulfilling foretold events. There is no satisfactory explanation as to why he would depart from this real only as to the entire point of his gospel.

III. What Happened to the Original Ending?

If Mark did not end at verse 8 and the modern version is not original to the text, what happened to the original ending? Whatever it was--and we will likely never know--it probably happened fairly early in the textual tradition. Given the independence of the traditions of Matthew and Luke, it is unlikely that they had access to an extended Marcan ending. Otherwise, they both probably would have relied more on it and shown greater similarities regarding the resurrection appearances. As it is, it appears that Matthew and Luke rely traditions independent of Mark.

The most likely explanation is that the manuscript was damaged. As B.H. Streeter points out in The Four Gospels, the ending of a gospel written on a scroll would be the most vulnerable part of the manuscript. If such a manuscript was damaged, the ending would be the most likely part to suffer. Additionally, because of the many latinisms in Mark, many scholars believe that it was written at Rome. And because Mark is dated from 65-70 CE, it is not improbable that the earliest manuscript was damaged during the fires or in Nero's persecution of Christians that followed shortly thereafter.

The main point, however, is that there is nothing extraordinary about postulating that an early manuscript of Mark was damaged.
Layman is offline  
Old 05-21-2003, 12:12 AM   #2
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: the reliquary of Ockham's razor
Posts: 4,035
Default

As B.H. Streeter points out in The Four Gospels, the ending of a gospel written on a scroll would be the most vulnerable part of the manuscript.

I always imagined that scrolls were rolled around a cyclindrical piece of wood or metal that had the last part of the scroll attached to the cylinder and the beginning of the scroll on the outside, ready to be read when the scroll is picked up. If that's how scrolls were made, then the beginning would be the most likely to get lost, while the ending would be rather unlikely. But then I haven't studied the issue. What do we know about scroll technology in the first century?

And could the Gospel of Mark have been published in a codex?

Oh, and Layman, can I copy your Marcion article from its location on "Early Christian Writings" to a position on "Did Jesus Exist?" where it would get additional viewers? Also, what do you think about publishing your thoughts here on the ending of Mark?

best,
Peter Kirby
Peter Kirby is online now   Edit/Delete Message
Old 05-21-2003, 12:27 AM   #3
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2001
Location: Waterbury, Ct, Usa
Posts: 6,523
Default

I think Mark ended at v. 8. It looks like a rhetorical device aimed at effecting the audience. I'll elaborate with a citation from Mary A. Tolbert tomorrow as I am tired now

Vinnie
Vinnie is offline  
Old 05-21-2003, 12:33 AM   #4
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: Los Angeles, CA
Posts: 2,635
Default

Quote:
Originally posted by Peter Kirby
As B.H. Streeter points out in The Four Gospels, the ending of a gospel written on a scroll would be the most vulnerable part of the manuscript.

I always imagined that scrolls were rolled around a cyclindrical piece of wood or metal that had the last part of the scroll attached to the cylinder and the beginning of the scroll on the outside, ready to be read when the scroll is picked up. If that's how scrolls were made, then the beginning would be the most likely to get lost, while the ending would be rather unlikely. But then I haven't studied the issue. What do we know about scroll technology in the first century?
You got me on this one. I was recounting Streeter's comments from memory (which explains the lack of a pinpoint reference). I'll swing by the library and refresch my recollection.

Quote:
And could the Gospel of Mark have been published in a codex?
That is a genuine possibility. Christians were pioneers in the use of codex. Martin Hengel, in The Four Gospels and the One Gospel of Jesus Christ, concludes that Mark "came into being" as a Codex. Id., at 122. I'm skeptical that the evidence is convincing either way, though I have not examined it closely.

Quote:
Oh, and Layman, can I copy your Marcion article from its location on "Early Christian Writings" to a position on "Did Jesus Exist?" where it would get additional viewers? Also, what do you think about publishing your thoughts here on the ending of Mark?
Sure, feel free to post the Marcion article on the other site. If you ever get any feedback on it, let me know. I think I'm one of the few people to have actually read Knox's theories on Marcion.

As for my thoughts on Mark, that would be fine. However, there may be some arguments and ideas I'd like to add based on discussions here. And, I'd like to clear up Streeter's point on the ending being damaged. Email me if you have any other thoughts on how to fill it out.
Layman is offline  
Old 05-21-2003, 12:34 AM   #5
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: Los Angeles, CA
Posts: 2,635
Default

Quote:
Originally posted by Vinnie
I think Mark ended at v. 8. It looks like a rhetorical device aimed at effecting the audience. I'll elaborate with a citation from Mary A. Tolbert tomorrow as I am tired now

Vinnie
A rehtorical device that ignores Mark's established propensity to spell out the fulfillment of foretellings?

That better be some quote. With plenty of examples.

Layman is offline  
Old 05-21-2003, 12:38 AM   #6
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2001
Location: Waterbury, Ct, Usa
Posts: 6,523
Default

Quote:
Originally posted by Layman
A rehtorical device that ignores Mark's established propensity to spell out the fulfillment of foretellings?

That better be some quote. With plenty of examples.

Its based upon elements of Mark's gospel

Drinking coffee at night is bad!!!! Argh!!!

Vinnie
Vinnie is offline  
Old 05-21-2003, 12:42 AM   #7
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: the reliquary of Ockham's razor
Posts: 4,035
Default

Have you read this essay on Dramatic Inconclusion?

What about this essay on Irony in the End?

best,
Peter Kirby
Peter Kirby is online now   Edit/Delete Message
Old 05-21-2003, 01:09 AM   #8
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2001
Location: Waterbury, Ct, Usa
Posts: 6,523
Default

Quote:
Originally posted by Peter Kirby
Have you read this essay on Dramatic Inconclusion?

What about this essay on Irony in the End?

best,
Peter Kirby
I've read neither but through a VERY fast skim my view may be close to the second essay.

Vinnie
Vinnie is offline  
Old 05-21-2003, 07:34 AM   #9
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2001
Location: St Louis area
Posts: 3,458
Default

Quote:
How did the Gospel of Mark end?
Original Mark 16:9

Quote:
The characters in this gospel are purely fictional. Any resemblance to persons living or dead are coincidental and by no means intended by the gospel writer.

Copyright LXX
MortalWombat is offline  
Old 05-28-2003, 03:35 PM   #10
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2001
Location: Los Angeles, CA
Posts: 2,635
Default

Quote:
Originally posted by Peter Kirby
As B.H. Streeter points out in The Four Gospels, the ending of a gospel written on a scroll would be the most vulnerable part of the manuscript.

I always imagined that scrolls were rolled around a cyclindrical piece of wood or metal that had the last part of the scroll attached to the cylinder and the beginning of the scroll on the outside, ready to be read when the scroll is picked up. If that's how scrolls were made, then the beginning would be the most likely to get lost, while the ending would be rather unlikely. But then I haven't studied the issue. What do we know about scroll technology in the first century?
I have not made it back to the library to check Streeter, but I ran across this:

We may note, to begin with, that the beginning and ending of a scroll were always vulnerable. A glance at any edition of the Dead Sea Scrolls, in particuilar at facsimile photographs, will reveal that even the scrolls which are preserved almost in their entirety are in many cases damaged at both ends.

N.T. Wright, The Resurrection of the Son of God, at 619.
Layman is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 05:08 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.