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Old 05-19-2002, 08:17 PM   #91
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Angry

Back on the couch, Scientiae!

I don't want none of that talk.

You hear?
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Old 05-19-2002, 08:30 PM   #92
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Quote:
Originally posted by Douglas J. Bender:
<strong>

This, from the same "Scientiae" who scurried away from the "Biblical Equations" thread</strong>
I'm sorry, Douglas, but no-one can be said to have scurried away from the biblical equations thread. (Would that we all would!)

Luv,
Unca' Joe
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Old 05-24-2002, 08:03 PM   #93
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Quote:
Originally posted by TollHouse:
<strong><a href="http://www.christianforums.com/forums/showthread.php?s=&threadid=12306&pagenumber=3" target="_blank">LouisBooth the mathematician...</a></strong>
Ow.

I posted a clarification. Not that it'll change anything, but... Ow.
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Old 05-24-2002, 09:41 PM   #94
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Quote:
Originally posted by Douglas J. Bender:
<strong>

Get any what, katerina?


In Christ,

Douglas</strong>
Something you'd have to pay for, I imagine...
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Old 05-25-2002, 10:55 AM   #95
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Douglas J. Bender:
Quote:
there is no reason, strictly from the definition of that integral, that the argument ("x") needs to be unitless
Of course this statement is true but it is also irrelavant, math is unitless, period. However, if you want to do physics (or any science) then your units have to work out. If there are units in functions like exp() or ln() then they must all cancel (the arguments must be unitless).

It is not a personal issue it is a fact.
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Old 05-25-2002, 11:04 AM   #96
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[ May 26, 2002: Message edited by: Scientiae ]</p>
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Old 05-25-2002, 06:17 PM   #97
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Quote:
Originally posted by Douglas J. Bender:
<strong>

In Christ,

Douglas</strong>
&lt; Sodomy Alert! &gt;

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Old 05-25-2002, 07:34 PM   #98
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Quote:
Originally posted by AdamWho:
<strong>
Of course this statement is true but it is also irrelavant, math is unitless, period. However, if you want to do physics (or any science) then your units have to work out. If there are units in functions like exp() or ln() then they must all cancel (the arguments must be unitless).

It is not a personal issue it is a fact.</strong>
Indeed, take the trigonometric functions as another example. The argument is the radian - a unitless ratio. When used in a physical context the argument is still unitless however the argument contains factors that cancel the units. For example, suppose we want to describe a physical system where some property of it changes in time. Let's say it's described by the function -

x = k*sin(T) + C

if x has units of metres then k*sin(T) must have the units of metres as must C. sin(T) is intrinsically unitless as is its argument, T. The proportionallity constant k assigns units to the sin() function. To give T physical meaning it is written as wt where t is our time coordinate with units of say, seconds, and w is a factor that allows us to relate the dimensionless sin() function to time. w is defined as 2*(PI)*f where f is the angular frequency with units of radians/second.

This is how I understand it anyway.
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Old 05-25-2002, 08:21 PM   #99
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Quote:
Originally posted by Douglas J. Bender:
<strong>

No, you haven't. All you've shown is that if the integral of (1/t)dt from 1 to x is interpreted as the inverse function of e^x, then x must be dimensionless (something I've not argued against). And I pointed out that one doesn't need to interpret it in that way, straight from the definition of the definite integral. Show me, from the definition of the natural logarithm (you know, "integrals" and "Riemann sums" and all that), why "x must be 'dimensionless'". If you do not, I will consider your silence to be an implicit admission of being vanquished. </strong>
Hehe, funny stuff. Dougie's such a kidder. The punchline is that if that we imagine "t" to have units of, say, meters then we are really saying "integrate 1/(some amount of meters) multiplied by dt (which is an infinitesimal quantity of meters) to produce a value which is the limit of a Reimann sum. Does anybody get the joke?

1/(t * meters) * (dt * meters)

The units cancel and the resulting quantity being integrated is - gasp - unitless. And yes, all definitions of a function must agree. This is a basic idea in logic - A is not "not A". The "function" ln (36.5 years) doesn't mean anything and never will. If "x" has units and the limit of the sum doesn't then we are clearly fucked in a cocked hat. Just like Uncle Doug.

<img src="graemlins/boohoo.gif" border="0" alt="[Boo Hoo]" />

[ May 25, 2002: Message edited by: Ragnarok ]</p>
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Old 05-26-2002, 09:57 AM   #100
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Scientiae, Douglas and others:

Deeper issues that are bothering me about these "math" threads:

1. The false idea that opinion actually counts in mathematical arguments, it doesn't, period.

2. The argument from authority. Both sides have been guilt and they are both wrong when they do it. Math is about proofs and it is irrelevant who gave the proof. Please do not use me as a authority just because I wrote physicist as my job title, my opinion is irrelevant.

3. Any mathematical proof must be clear, concise and 100% accurate, one mistake = 100% wrong. Math / logic are black and white on this issue.

4. Reason is not synonymous with logic. This mistake seems to be hardwired into cranks. Logic is tautologies; no new knowledge can be gained, just manipulated. Reason is the application of logic and empirical data. Just because something is logically consistent doesn't mean that it makes physical sense.

But as stated in bullet two, my opinion doesn’t count so argue on!
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