mark9950

The one who alledgedly had every first born killed after jesus was born.

Is there any written record anywhere of king herod really doing such a thing.

I read somewhere that,that was just fiction from the gospel matthew.

keyser_soze

Actual ruler, fictional account...

Marduk

“Actual ruler, fictional account...”

Yes, you can view his multi-ton alabaster bathtub at the Rockefeller museum in Jerusalem.
The stuff about the baby killings is in Matthew’s Gospel only and no where else in anyone’s writings Christian or non-Christian.

Haran

Not true. It is also in the Protevangelium of James, an apocryphal Christian work dating to the 2nd half of the 2nd century AD according to J.K. Elliot. The account is possibly in others.

Peter Kirby

The qualifier should have been added, "except those that were dependent on Matthew."

best,
Peter Kirby

keyser_soze

Please expand marducks answer to " in the bible"....by all means. The fact remains, that it is not found outside the bible. And it's not like they didn't know how to write.


And Haran, you would also need to reflect on whether or not one work was used to write the other, before you could use mulitple attestation...

edited to add: Please disregard, Peter posted while I was composing....use his response.

keyser_soze

Damn peter you're fast! I'm glad that the thought popped into my head NEARLY as fast....as I consider you to be the pinnacle of research....:notworthy

Marduk

Right, second half of the second Century sounds like copying Matt.

mark9950

like matthew and the writer is a fraud.

Haran

This does not matter as he stated "in Matthew’s Gospel only and no where else in anyone’s writings Christian or non-Christian." As stated, it was wrong.

It is very true that Matthew may have been used by the author of the PJ, however there are apparently scholarly theories stating that the PJ was not dependent on Matthew but was actually earlier.