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04-14-2003, 03:51 PM | #81 | |||
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Re: Re: christian hypocracy on abortion?
well, looks like my thread has really taken off
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04-14-2003, 04:51 PM | #82 | |||||
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04-14-2003, 05:10 PM | #83 | |
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Re: Re: Re: christian hypocracy on abortion?
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04-14-2003, 05:53 PM | #84 | |||
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In my experience, many people who claim xianity as their religion, do so out of conveinence, to "go with the flow". They consider "God" to represent good, and "Hell" to represent bad, and of course they try to be good. They don't read the bible, celebrate religious holidays in a mostly secular fashion, attend church rarely - and then mostly for social reasons. With these people I have no beef. Of course, we don't run into them on this board! Quote:
Fundy and near-fundy xianity, IMO, promotes bigotry and intolerance, and so I oppose it. Xian hypocrisy on abortion is an example. (That was a blatant attempt to avoid a thread split.) Quote:
I admire your ability to irritate both ends of the spectrum, and that's a fact. BTW please provide an example or two of what you mean by "evil can imitate good". |
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04-14-2003, 06:25 PM | #85 | |
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A more chilling example would be demon posession which, if the late Malachi Martin is to be believed, often starts out as "enlightenment" from the POV of the victim. I recommend his "Hostage to the Devil", a detailed recounting of several cases of posession, to be read on an empty stomach. |
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04-14-2003, 09:18 PM | #86 | |
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1. The Non-Contingency of Objective Moral Truth If "rape is wrong" is an objective moral truth, it is objectively true in all possible worlds. There are possible worlds in which a creator of the universe condones rape, or in which there is no law-giving creator of the universe. Therefore, a thing that is objectively wrong cannot have its truth be contingent on the mandates of the creator of the universe. Perhaps the strongest objection to this argument is the ontological proof of God, or that God exists by definition and is the same in all possible worlds. However, I have a strong intuition that (1) things cannot be made to exist by definition and (2) there are possible universes without Bible God. 2. The Arbitrary Selection of the Perfect Moralist One might claim that the best moral system is that taught by Confucius, Buddha, Jesus, Epicurus, Aristotle, Karl Marx, Ayn Rand, or Bertrand Russell. Or one might claim that the best moral system is that taught by Jehovah. What allows us to make the decision as to which moralist is The Standard? If you say that these moralists are obviously flawed, aren't you assuming that Jehovah is the standard already, and thus have failed to take account of the problem of choosing what The Stanadard actually is? An obvious answer, of course, is that objective morality is not contingent upon any particular Moralist. 3. The Irrelevance of an External Dictator God makes the rules, but he is not bound by them? Then why should we be bound by them? Imagine that there were a race of aliens that were extremely smart, strong, and wise. Would we be obligated to obey their dictates on account of their superiority? And if these aliens ceased to exist, then would all obligation between people also cease to exist? I don't think so. And I don't think that morality would cease to exist if Jehovah did. So, if there is an objective reality to moral truths, what's gods got to do with it? best, Peter Kirby |
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04-14-2003, 09:55 PM | #87 | ||||
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04-14-2003, 10:34 PM | #88 | |
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Re: They are not even following the Bible.
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Another interp of this passage is referred to as pre-mature live childbirth. According to this view what is translated as "so that her fruit depart from her" in the King James and "so that there is a miscarriage" are incorrect translations, with the KJV being closer to the mark. Rather, this interp suggests, the Hebrew word yeled is used for the child that comes out of the womb. This word is never used in the Old Testament for a child that cannot exist outside of the womb. If the author intended to signify a fetus he would have used the Hebrew word Golem, which means fetus. Furthermore, the commonly used Hebrew word for the death of an infant is nephel. So, as you can see there were two clear terms the author could have used to indicate miscarriage or death. However, neither were chosen. Therefore, the best interp is pre-mature birth. One last thing can be said for this interp. The Hebrew verb yatza used here when the mother is struck is ordinarily used of normal births, not for the death of a new born. There is one case--Numbers 12:12--where it is used of a stillborn, but never is it used for miscarriage. The Old Testament term for miscarriage is shakol. This term is found in Genesis 31:38; Exodus 23:26; Job 2:10; among others. Therefore, this passage cannot be used to condone abortion. Try again. |
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04-14-2003, 10:51 PM | #89 | |||
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best, Peter Kirby |
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04-15-2003, 11:06 AM | #90 | |||
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Therefore, it appears that, according to your premise, no living being(s) can be vested with any moral authority whatsoever, which means your "objective standard" must be non-living. An example of this, in theory, would be our Constitution. In practice, it needs people to interpret how its principles should be applied to specific situations, making them in effect the objective standard within the framework of constitutional law. The point being that to be meaningful, any objective standard MUST have life, so as to be able to say, "no, you idiots, that's NOT what I meant". |
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