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04-04-2002, 10:35 AM | #1 |
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Wes Morriston's Lecture Notes on Moral Relativism
I think these are well-written.
<a href="http://www.colorado.edu/philosophy/wes/moral-relativism.html" target="_blank">http://www.colorado.edu/philosophy/wes/moral-relativism.html</a> Jeffery Jay Lowder |
04-04-2002, 03:25 PM | #2 | |
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jlowder:
This does seem, on the whole, to be a pretty good summary of the issues involved. But I have to take issue with Morriston’s failure to deal more critically with what he calls “naturalistic theories”. The crux of such theories, as he describes them, is: Quote:
Besides, if the justification for saying that we have a duty to adhere to certain “moral standards” is that this will benefit society, doesn’t it follow that we have a duty to perform any act that will benefit society? Why should this duty be limited to adhering to certain specified standards? But this leads to a problem, because no matter what standards you specify there will be cases when violating the standard benefits society more than adhering to it. For example, in a specific case it might benefit society to convict a man of a crime of which he’s innocent. (Perhaps he’s a professional hit man, but you can’t prove it in court.) But your moral standards say that you should never knowingly convict a man of a crime of which he’s innocent. If the justification for adhering to this standard is that doing so benefits society, how can you justify adhering to it in this case when it doesn’t benefit society? Also, suppose that society will “flourish” best if we treat an entire class of people unjustly – for example by enslaving them? It won’t do to say that this can never be the case. In the first place it would be easy to give examples where it does seem to be the case. More importantly, this reply makes the wrongness of slavery a function of its effects on society as a whole rather than on the fundamental injustice involved. Finally, this kind of “theory” is incapable of giving any reason for adhering to any kind of moral standard when dealing with people with whom we have no intention of living together. Thus, the Israelites apparently wiped out everyone in the city of Jericho because the wanted Jericho for themselves How can this kind of theory provide any reasons why they shouldn’t have done so? Similarly, the Vikings’ practice of pillaging coastal villages seems to have allowed them to “flourish as human beings” for quite a long time. In fact, they seem to have adopted a moral standard that said they ought to live this way. What could be wrong with that in terms of this kind of moral theory? Or finally, the Nazis believed that exterminating the Jews would help their society to flourish. Did the wrongness of the Holocaust consist only in the fact that they were mistaken in this belief? |
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04-06-2002, 06:32 AM | #3 | |||||||
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If any act has “fundamental injustice” then it’s bad for society. Quote:
If an action is detrimental to the individual OR society then it’s wrong for humans. There are no moral dilemmas. |
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