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06-21-2002, 02:52 PM | #1 | |
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If Ruth was a Moabite...
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Which was written first? I assume not Ruth. Am I on to something or just proof-texting? |
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06-21-2002, 08:15 PM | #2 |
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I don't have time to look over the Torah, but here's a suggestion. Non-Isrealites could convert and become Israelites. IIRC Ruth's husband converts to following the Israelite God. If Ruth's husband converts he may not be included in the prohibition. Just a thought.
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06-21-2002, 08:30 PM | #3 |
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If Ruth's husband converts he may not be included in the prohibition. Just a thought.[/QB][/QUOTE]
Good point to bring up when playing "Devil's advocate." However, I have not found any such statement allowing an exception like the one you mention. If the Christian brings up Rahab being spared after "the fall of Jericho" as proof of an "exception by principle", tell them that no where did god say in the Bible he approved the Israelites not killing her. In a nutshell, the exception principle has no defense. |
06-21-2002, 11:23 PM | #4 |
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The Moabites were a Semitic people, too. They aren't another race, just another tribe of the day. As a matter of fact, the ancient Hebrews demonstrated their relationship (and their contempt) by writing in Genesis that Moab was a descendant of Lot through incest with his daughter.
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06-22-2002, 01:24 PM | #5 | |
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06-22-2002, 01:35 PM | #6 |
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This is not infrequently used to show the importance of the Oral Law. I found the following article interesting:<a href="http://www.uahc.org/outreach/among.shtml" target="_blank">THE CONVERT AMONG US</a>.
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06-22-2002, 07:28 PM | #7 |
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Gimme jus' one Moabite 'o dat sandwich puhleez!
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06-24-2002, 02:40 PM | #8 | |
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Thanks. AJ |
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