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Old 06-21-2002, 02:52 PM   #1
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Post If Ruth was a Moabite...

Quote:
Ruth 1
4 They married Moabite women, one named Orpah and the other Ruth.

Deuteronomy 23
3 No Ammonite or Moabite or any of his descendants may enter the assembly of the Lord , even down to the tenth generation.
And as most of us know David was the decendant of Ruth(I think less than 10 gen.) and thus so was Jesus, making all of them a bunch of Moabites, or at least mixed racially. Does Deuteronomy 23:3 apply to David and Jesus?

Which was written first? I assume not Ruth. Am I on to something or just proof-texting?
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Old 06-21-2002, 08:15 PM   #2
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I don't have time to look over the Torah, but here's a suggestion. Non-Isrealites could convert and become Israelites. IIRC Ruth's husband converts to following the Israelite God. If Ruth's husband converts he may not be included in the prohibition. Just a thought.
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Old 06-21-2002, 08:30 PM   #3
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If Ruth's husband converts he may not be included in the prohibition. Just a thought.[/QB][/QUOTE]

Good point to bring up when playing "Devil's advocate." However, I have not found any such statement allowing an exception like the one you mention. If the Christian brings up Rahab being spared after "the fall of Jericho" as proof of an "exception by principle", tell them that no where did god say in the Bible he approved the Israelites not killing her. In a nutshell, the exception principle has no defense.
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Old 06-21-2002, 11:23 PM   #4
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The Moabites were a Semitic people, too. They aren't another race, just another tribe of the day. As a matter of fact, the ancient Hebrews demonstrated their relationship (and their contempt) by writing in Genesis that Moab was a descendant of Lot through incest with his daughter.
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Old 06-22-2002, 01:24 PM   #5
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Quote:
Originally posted by smugg:
<strong>The Moabites were a Semitic people, too. They aren't another race, just another tribe of the day. As a matter of fact, the ancient Hebrews demonstrated their relationship (and their contempt) by writing in Genesis that Moab was a descendant of Lot through incest with his daughter.</strong>
That gets to my ultimate question. Even if they were allowed back into good graces with the temple, weren't they still looked down upon years and generations later? What does that say about the status of King David and his heirs? Something must have changed quite a bit.
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Old 06-22-2002, 01:35 PM   #6
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This is not infrequently used to show the importance of the Oral Law. I found the following article interesting:<a href="http://www.uahc.org/outreach/among.shtml" target="_blank">THE CONVERT AMONG US</a>.
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Old 06-22-2002, 07:28 PM   #7
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Gimme jus' one Moabite 'o dat sandwich puhleez!

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Old 06-24-2002, 02:40 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally posted by ReasonableDoubt:
<strong>This is not infrequently used to show the importance of the Oral Law. I found the following article interesting:<a href="http://www.uahc.org/outreach/among.shtml" target="_blank">THE CONVERT AMONG US</a>.</strong>
Now that is the kind of answer this place is great for! I hadn't even considered extra-biblical areas(a carry-over from days as a christian when EVERY answer had a chapter and verse with it.)

Thanks. AJ
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