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05-12-2002, 06:08 AM | #1 |
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Intolerance
In the course of human history, religion has been the direct cause of some of the worst atrocities
ever perpetrated on mankind. There seems to be a never ending effort of one belief system to wipe out another. I wondered why there has been a strong undercurrent of hostility between differing religious orders and systems of faith, other than the obvious testosterone driven urge for power. For the most part nearly all of the organized religions of the world have attached themselves to the monotheistic brand of worship. If these religions claim there is only one god, why should there be strife and friction between them. Is there a biblical explanation for the intolerance and elitism that is pretty much plainly exhibited by organized religions? The following verses point out exactly what is expected by the god of the KJV, with regard to tolerance for other peoples beliefs. Dt.13:6 "If thy brother, the son of thy mother, or thy son, or thy daughter, or the wife of thy bosom, or thy friend, which is as thine own soul, entice thee secretly, saying, Let us go and serve other gods, which thou hast not known, thou, nor thy fathers; Namely, of the gods of the people which are round about you, nigh unto thee, or far off from thee, from the one end of the earth even unto the other end of the earth; Thou shalt not consent unto him, nor hearken unto him; neither shall thine eye pity him, neither shalt thou spare, neither shalt thou conceal him: But thou shalt surely kill him; thine hand shall be first upon him to put him to death, and afterwards the hand of all the people. And thou shalt stone him with stones, that he die." 2 Chr.15:13 "whosoever would not seek the LORD God of Israel should be put to death, whether small or great, whether man or woman." The above verses seem to give a specific admonition that tolerance for other faiths is not acceptable to the god of the KJV. I think back to the terrorist attack, and to the all out efforts of leadership to quell the rising tide of anti-muslim fervor. Specifically the statements that religious people all worship the same god, just in different ways. The politically correct point of view to curb violence directed toward muslims living outside of the oppressive Islamic states. What the Bible says is that no tolerance is to be shown for anyone who does not worship the god of Israel. Are these verses taken literally, a root cause of all the violence between supposedly pious men? How do christians interpret the above verses? Wolf [ May 12, 2002: Message edited by: sighhswolf ]</p> |
05-13-2002, 07:47 AM | #2 |
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The silence is deafening. You're obviously taking those passages out of context.
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05-13-2002, 08:35 AM | #3 | |
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Now the question, I think, is how is the teaching of the NT is reconciled with the OT verses you cite and others. Much of the focus of the OT is on the creation, survival and separation of Israel. God wanted Israel to be a separate people and not to lose its identity by being assimilated with its neighbors. Some harsh results came out of this like the total annihilation of certain other tribes and harsh treatment of other peoples. No Christian can or should dispute that these things were done or that they were the will of God. However, we can see the result that the people of Israel have maintained there distinctiveness. I believe that orthodox Christianity teachs that the verses you cited were specific to Israel in the time before Christ and no longer apply to Christians. Those directives from God were designed to prevent the Jews from assimilating with their neighbors. I hope this is the type of explanation you are looking for. Regards, Finch |
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05-13-2002, 11:12 AM | #4 | |||
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Atticus Finch said,
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To sighhswolf: I am not sure I would say religion has been the "direct cause" of such atrocities. But, I do think religion is inherently dangerous exactly because of its capacity to be abused as a justification for committing atrocities. Ciao, M. |
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05-13-2002, 11:21 AM | #5 | |
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The NT suggests that Christians are no longer bound by the law, as set forth in the bible, at all. See Gal. 3:10-14 and Acts 10:9-16. However, it also suggests that in response to our salvation we should lead moral lives. Gal 5:13-26. We are not saved by living moral lives but should want to live in a way pleasing to God. We can look to the moral law of the OT for hints as to God's moral law. That is where references to the 10 Commandments are often made. Regards, Finch |
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05-13-2002, 02:54 PM | #6 | |
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cia. M. |
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05-13-2002, 02:55 PM | #7 | |
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I really dont have an opinion I only wanted to find out how christians justify the intolerance they show for other monotheistic forms of worship, and even the differing sects of their own belief system. Of course I would say that the "NEW" Covenant that god supposedly has with christianity that invalidates the old laws given to Moses and the laws given to Noah, "The Noahide Laws" have not according to the Jews ever been invalidated in any way shape or form. The laws of god and the covenant he had established with Israel and it's children continues to today, and it is forbidden to change one word of the law. It would seem that the change was ushered in through the watchful eye of the founders of the christian faith. If those laws had been changed or invalidated why then would Jesus have said " The scribes and Pharisees sit in Moses seat; therefore all that they tell you do and observe". Wolf |
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05-14-2002, 05:39 AM | #8 | |
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Regards, Finch |
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05-14-2002, 05:42 AM | #9 | |
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Regards, Finch |
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05-14-2002, 06:40 AM | #10 |
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Matthew 23: 1-3
Then said Jesus to the crowds and to his disciples, "The scribes and the Pharisees sit on Moses' seat; so practice and observe whatever they tell you, but not what they do; for they preach, but do not practice..." |
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