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Old 07-21-2002, 06:38 AM   #121
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Why not?
There is nothing about your definition of "Maximal excellence" that merits more credibility, than any other definition.
Well, if you think that “Being ugly, fat and stupid” is just a plausible a candidate for properties of “excellence” as “Being knowledgeable, powerful, and morally good,” then I don’t know what to say except that you have stripped language of having any sort of normative meanings <shrugs>.

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False. Who is "we" in "our"?
I can see that the definition of ME is directly tied to the christian god, and so the argument presupposes what it tries to prove.
All the argument asserts in its definition of excellence is that knowledge, goodness, and power are excellent making properties such that having these properties to their maximal degree (being omniscient, morally perfect, and omnipotent) makes for maximal excellence. If you can’t see, at least, some intuitive plausibility in that, I don’t know what else to say, except that these definitions and premises hold a great deal of intuitive warrant for myself and many others.

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This argument above makes 3 false assumptions.

1. Our intuition says that god is omnimax.
No, the argument seeks to demonstrate that such a being exists.

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2. Our intuition says that god exists.
No, the argument makes certain intuitive appeals to concepts such as “excellence and greatness”

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3. Our intuition has some baring on the existence of beings unproven by us.
Our intuition does have some baring on the nature of reality, or, at least, we must believe it does if we want to engage in any sort of rational discourse. In fact, some of the most certain things we know (such as 2+2=4) are known intuitively. Basic epistemic methods such as induction or reliance on memory or belief in other minds are grounded in intuition.

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The god you are refering to is simply favored by you because you are a christian. Someone who believe in ghosts could use the same argument (along with his intuition) to prove the existence of ghosts.
How so?

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For an argument to be valid and meaningfull, you must be able to reach the conclution that X exist without any presupposed beliefs, and without favoring one side over another.
Define what you mean by “presupposed beliefs.” I think you will find that any sort of rational argument relies on, at least some, very basic presuppositions. The idea of wholly neutral perspective, as modern philosophy has shown repeatedly, is woefully epistemically naďve.

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What is tries to prove is that if X can exist then X does exist, wich is an illogical claim.
If the concept of a necessary being is coherent and X is a necessary being, then there is nothing illogical in saying that “possibly X” implies “X.” In fact, that is precisely what follows logically in terms of modal logic. A necessary proposition is, by definition, true in all logically possible worlds. If a necessary proposition is logically possible, then it is true in at least one logically possible world. But, if a necessary proposition is true in at least one possible world, then it must, by it’s necessity, be true in all possible worlds. In terms of Modal logic, “Necessarily X” follows from “It is possible that X is necessary.”

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“1.There is a possible world in which maximal greatness is instantiated.”

This of course deals with possibility, not with probability.
This argument is dealing with purely modal considerations of logical possibility and logical necessity. Probability need not enter the picture.

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“Necessarily, a being is maximally great only if it has maximal excellence in every possible world.”

A hypothetical claim. It is not tied to the being in question.
Huh? In terms of the structure of the argument, this premise is simply unpacking the definitions.

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Necessarily, a being has maximal excellence in every possible world only if it has omnipotence, omniscience and moral perfection in every possible world.

A tautology, but true.
Well, again,in terms of the argument's structure this is true by definition. It is true that definitions are a special form of a tautology, but I don’t see how that’s a problem.

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”Maximal excellence is instantiated in every possible world.”

Now, here is where the error lies. You took a hypothetical claim (not bound to the being, or the world in question) and made it a necessity. You went from possibility (point 1) to actual existence. Point 2 and 3 was refering to a hypothesis, not something tied with reality. This is the fault in point4.
The conclusion follows modally from the premises. So far as I now, no one in the philosophical community disputes this argument on the grounds that it is modally invalid.

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I don't know why came up with the argument above, but it seems to me that his agenda was not to provide a usefull argument to seperate true from false, but rather trying to confuse the reader.
I didn’t come up with it. Alvin Plantinga, a well known philosopher did. Since this argument has also been debated and discussed a great deal within contemporary philosophy of religion, I wish I could take the credit for it, but, alas, I can't.

God Bless,
Kenny

[ July 21, 2002: Message edited by: Kenny ]</p>
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Old 07-21-2002, 09:28 AM   #122
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Kenny, Plantinga's ontological argument is not valid, it is circular.
  • "No one who didn't already accept [the ontological argument's] conclusion [that there is a maximally excellent being] would accept [its] first premise [that there is a possible world in which there is a maximally great being, which by definition of maximal greatness is a being that exists in, and is maximally excellent in, every world]" (Plantinga 1974)
And he notes in his writing that there is no reason not to accept the counter argument, that in some possible world maximal excellence is not exemplified, thus "maximal excellence exists" is a not a modally necessary statement, thus it is not really maximal excellence and hence, does not exist.

I do not accept that any necessary being is possible, without it being demonstrated first that it is necessary, because &lt;&gt;[]p is the same as []p.

Furthermore, even if it were valid, it is not sound by a long shot. It misapplies existence, it misapplies necessity, it misapplies perfection, it analytically tries to perform a necessarily synthetic task, etc.
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Old 07-21-2002, 09:36 AM   #123
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Kenny...

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Well, if you think that “Being ugly, fat and stupid” is just a plausible a candidate for properties of “excellence” as “Being knowledgeable, powerful, and morally good,” then I don’t know what to say except that you have stripped language of having any sort of normative meanings &lt;shrugs&gt;
The problem here is that "Maximum Excellence" is frankly bullshit.
Why should a being that you refer to as M.E be more probable to exist than any other being?
And what relevance does those attributes have on the being's probability?

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All the argument asserts in its definition of excellence is that knowledge, goodness, and power are excellent making properties such that having these properties to their maximal degree (being omniscient, morally perfect, and omnipotent) makes for maximal excellence.
So, it is just a coinsident that the argument has those particular attributes that your supposed god happens to have?
And, again... Why those attibutes?
What relevance do they have?

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If you can’t see, at least, some intuitive plausibility in that, I don’t know what else to say, except that these definitions and premises hold a great deal of intuitive warrant for myself and many others.
I can't help you with that. Why should I consider them plausable?
And more plausable than any other attributes.
What you mean is "possible". But possible isn't "probable". And it isn't "necessary".

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This argument above makes 3 false assumptions.
1. Our intuition says that god is omnimax.


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No, the argument seeks to demonstrate that such a being exists.


quote:
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2. Our intuition says that god exists.
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No, the argument makes certain intuitive appeals to concepts such as “excellence and greatness”
These statements was not based on your god-argument.
They were a reply to this text posted by you:

If “maximal excellence” were defined as “being stupid, ugly and fat,” the argument would indeed maintain a valid logical structure but all of it’s intuitive support would be gone.

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Our intuition does have some baring on the nature of reality, or, at least, we must believe it does if we want to engage in any sort of rational discourse.
No it doesn't. Intuition might have baring on our knowledge of reality (we should fully rely on it, though). But it doesn't change the reality around us.

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In fact, some of the most certain things we know (such as 2+2=4) are known intuitively.
Strawman. 2+2=4 is a logical/mathematical statement based on hypothetical values expressed in a system invented by us. It doesn't have any positive existensial claims.
It doesn't say that this and that exist in our reality.
Why should intuition have any baring when contemplating on things we haven't discovered any evidence for yet?
I would say "fantasy" would be a better word for that.

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Define what you mean by “presupposed beliefs.”
I'll give you an example. Your definition of ME. You favored those attributes, without any apperant reason except for being a christian.

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I think you will find that any sort of rational argument relies on, at least some, very basic presuppositions.
Yes, but not as extreme that they would fully control the conclution of the argument. If they were, the argument would be a tautology. Wich this clearly is.

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The idea of wholly neutral perspective, as modern philosophy has shown repeatedly, is woefully epistemically naďve.
This has nothing to do with your argument. It might be usefull just for yourself, but it shows nothing when presented to someone who doesn't believe what you believe in.

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If the concept of a necessary being is coherent and X is a necessary being, then there is nothing illogical in saying that “possibly X” implies “X.
But your argument has to show that. And it can't do it if the attributes of X is not necessary for the argument to work.

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A necessary proposition is, by definition, true in all logically possible worlds.
ok, keep going.

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If a necessary proposition is logically possible, then it is true in at least one logically possible world. But, if a necessary proposition is true in at least one possible world, then it must, by it’s necessity, be true in all possible worlds.
And here we have the problem again. What this comes down to is that something that is possible is necessary. A claim wich is insane when put into practice.
We have no reason to assume that something exist simply based on it's possibility.
And we have definitly no reason to claim that it exist based on a possibility.

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In terms of Modal logic, “Necessarily X” follows from “It is possible that X is necessary.”
If that is so, then what baring does Modal logic have on reality. It cannot explain/prove anything as it supposes that possible = necessary.

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This argument is dealing with purely modal considerations of logical possibility and logical necessity. Probability need not enter the picture.
Are you basing your knowledge of our world without "probability"?
You might be suprised at how little that can be known with 100% certainty. It all comes down to probability.

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kenny:
Necessarily, a being is maximally great only if it has maximal excellence in every possible world.

Theli:
A hypothetical claim. It is not tied to the being in question.

Kenny:
Huh? In terms of the structure of the argument, this premise is simply unpacking the definitions.
It is still a hypothetical claim. It explains the nature of a hypothetical being. Not X.

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Well, again, in terms of the argument's structure this is true by definition. It is true that definitions are a special form of a tautology, but I don’t see how that’s a problem.
No, there was no problem.

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The conclusion follows modally from the premises. So far as I now, no one in the philosophical community disputes this argument on the grounds that it is modally invalid.
But it is. It still claims that something described as possible in the first premise has become necessary in the conclution, independent of it's attributes. So, in fact. Everything we can imagine must exist, and is a necessary. And you don't see a problem with this line of thinking?

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I didn’t come up with it. Alvin Plantinga, a well known philosopher did. Since this argument has also been debated and discussed a great deal within contemporary philosophy of religion, I wish I could take the credit for it, but, alas, I can't.
Has this argument ever shown it's face outside religion? With a different being/claim?
I see some special pleading going on here.
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Old 07-21-2002, 09:42 AM   #124
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1. In some possible world W, there exists an unlimited being X, that knows (knowledge implies truth of known proposition) there is no God.
2. If X is unlimited, if it exists, it would have to have unlimited existence, and thus would exist in every possible world.
3. In W, X exists.
4. Thus, in W, X exists in every possible world.
5. One can't in some possible world exist in every possible world, and in another, not exist in every possible world.
6. Thus, X exists in every possible world.
7. Thus, in every possible world, it is true that there is no God.
8. If something does not exist in any possible world, then it is impossible.
9. Therefore, God is impossible.

This is based on the same "intuitive postulate" that something must be assumed possible until proven impossible, and on the same notion of existence, and the same possibility to have unlimited existence, from simple attributal unlimitedness, that the ontological argument for God is based on. The rest is merely modal axioms such as universal necessity, and the principles of possible worlds semantics. To deny any of the former listed premises would be to deny the logic that holds up the ontological argument.
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Old 07-21-2002, 10:03 AM   #125
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And one more thing Kenny, you do seem to place an awful amount of stock in these "intuitive" premises. What if I posit the argument:
1. If donuts are evil, God does not exist.
2. Donuts are evil.
3. Therefore, God does not exist.
And to some guy named Bob the premises seem intuitive. What would that have to do with anything? Simply claiming that premises are intuitive does not entail support for said premises.

Why do people take ontological arguments seriously? They are about as convincing as one of my arguments that proves I am, in fact, God.
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Old 07-21-2002, 10:26 AM   #126
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Originally posted by Automaton:
Kenny, Plantinga's ontological argument is not valid, it is circular.
  • "No one who didn't already accept [the ontological argument's] conclusion [that there is a maximally excellent being] would accept [its] first premise [that there is a possible world in which there is a maximally great being, which by definition of maximal greatness is a being that exists in, and is maximally excellent in, every world]" (Plantinga 1974)
I would like to see the full context of this quote because I’m not sure that Plantinga is referring to his ontological argument but to an argument such as the earlier one I provided (my “God exists or 2+2=5” argument was lifted from an example given by Plantinga to illustrate the complexities of determining what makes for a good argument). Plantinga does concede in his writings that the key premise of his OA (maximal greatness is instantiated in at least one possible world) is unlikely to be accepted by someone who is not a theist, but also argues that this premise can and does have intuitive warrant for many theists and thus confers warrant toward belief in God for such theists.

More later...

God Bless,
Kenny
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Old 07-21-2002, 10:37 AM   #127
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Originally posted by Automaton:
[QB]1. In some possible world W, there exists an unlimited being X, that knows (knowledge implies truth of known proposition) there is no God.
2. If X is unlimited, if it exists, it would have to have unlimited existence, and thus would exist in every possible world.
3. In W, X exists.
4. Thus, in W, X exists in every possible world.
5. One can't in some possible world exist in every possible world, and in another, not exist in every possible world.
6. Thus, X exists in every possible world.
7. Thus, in every possible world, it is true that there is no God.
8. If something does not exist in any possible world, then it is impossible.
9. Therefore, God is impossible.
I’m curious as to how you are defining “unlimited” because, in terms of my understanding of the terms, if X were “unlimited” X would be God, which, in turn, renders the first premise absurd (in no possible world can a rational being know that it does not exist). But, no matter, I recognize that it is possible to parody the ontological argument, but I do not believe that this renders it unsound or means that it cannot confer warrant for theism to certain persons.

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This is based on the same "intuitive postulate" that something must be assumed possible until proven impossible
I never stated that this was some sort of intuitive postulate. As far as I can see, such a postulate should not be held because it would lead to absurdities. The intuitive grounds for the key premise in the OA involves intuitions concerning “excellence and greatness.” Affirming the key premise involves the intuitive recognition of the possibility of perfection or “maximal greatness.”

God Bless,
Kenny
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Old 07-21-2002, 10:56 AM   #128
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Originally posted by Automaton:
[QB]And one more thing Kenny, you do seem to place an awful amount of stock in these "intuitive" premises. What if I posit the argument:
1. If donuts are evil, God does not exist.
2. Donuts are evil.
3. Therefore, God does not exist.
And to some guy named Bob the premises seem intuitive. What would that have to do with anything?
If Bob really thought that such premises were “intuitive,” I would most likely consider Bob to be insane or at least have some sort of cognitive malfunction. But, what does that have to do with my intuitions or human intuition in general? Human beings rely on intuition a great deal in finding out things about the world.

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Simply claiming that premises are intuitive does not entail support for said premises.
Agreed, and if the premises of the OA do not seem intuitive to you, then there may be no way for me to convince you of them. However, that does not mean that said premises are not intuitive for me or even that they are not warranted for me. And this brings us back to the original thread topic. I picked the OA because it’s a perfect example of the point I was trying to illustrate. Just because the premises of the argument convey no intuitive warrant for you or are not accepted by you does not mean they convey no intuitive warrant for others. The fact that you are not willing to accept the key premise of the OA does not mean that the OA is not sound or even that it is irrational for someone else to believe it is. The OA illustrates how differing intuitive and intellectual commitments influence how one might judge the soundness of a particular argument.

That all being said and the point being made, I concede that the OA is not very valuable in terms of convincing non-theists. As you pointed out, Plantinga himself concedes that and when he formulated the argument he did not intend it to be so convincing.

God Bless,
Kenny
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Old 07-21-2002, 11:47 AM   #129
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3) Necessarily, a being has maximal excellence in every possible world only if it has omnipotence, omniscience and moral perfection in every possible world.

4) Maximal excellence is instantiated in every possible world.
Kenny,
Quote:
Well, Plantinga’s argument nowhere states “excellence must exist” as a premise or that “Excellence = God;” thus, your restatement of that argument here is, at best, a parody. But, that aside, your objection to the argument seems to be that if you combine its premises into a single large premise, that larger premise is logically equivalent to the conclusion. I really don’t know how to respond to that since that’s true for any valid argument! If you think an argument's being valid makes it question begging, then I really don’t know what else to say!
Kenny, the question here is not whether the argument is valid, of course it’s valid! The point is that the ontological argument assumes what it sets out to prove, namely (4), 'the instantiation of a being with maximal excellence’ or in other words ‘the existence of God’. The ontological argument is a fancy piece of sophistry, nothing more.

Here it is again, in case it's unclear: The question is “Does god exist”? Premise 3 defines Maximal Excellence in terms of god’s putative qualities. Premise 4 asserts that God, defined in 3, exists. The conclusion is that God, defined in 3 exists.

The sleight of hand is simply made more explicit when simplified. Validity is not the same thing as begging the questions you intend to answer.

[ July 21, 2002: Message edited by: Synaesthesia ]</p>
 
Old 07-21-2002, 12:01 PM   #130
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Kenny: But, strictly speaking, the premise “God exists or 2+2=5,” is not merely a restatement of “God exists” in another form. The conclusion, “God exists” is not present in any of the premises. Thus, formally, the argument is not circular. It also meets the definition of soundness offered in nearly every logic text book (if God exists). It’s premises are true and the argument is valid.
Hi Kenny,
In your statement above I have highlighted the particular claim that you use to support your contention that your argument was sound. Rather than go through the entire process of rebuttal again I’ll let you instruct yourself:

Kenny earlier: As far as the first premise, “God exists or 2+2=5,” is concerned, recall that all that is required for an “or” disjunction to be true is that one of the disjuncts be true. If God exists, then “God exists or p” is true for any proposition one wishes to substitute for p.

rw: I certainly hope you are not arguing that 2+2=5 as a true proposition. If not, that only leaves us with “God exists”. Thus, by the rules of an “or” disjunction you have indeed asserted the presence of the conclusion in the first postulate of P1 and your argument is unsound. If you attempt to distance yourself from “God exists” as an assumptive truism, then neither postulate in P1 is true and your argument remains unsound.

Your qualifying “if” does not exonerate you from the assumption nor lead us soundly to your conclusion “then”.

But I get your point that, from your perspective, the argument appears sound. The only problem being, your perspective is not, itself, sound.
And that, I think, is the entire purpose of logic to establish...yes?
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