Thanatoast

Many Christians will explain that they don't continue to stone people to death for picking up sticks on the Sabath, or think its sinful to have sex with one's wife while she's menstruating, because of the distinction between moral and ceremonial law in the OT. Being gay is still an abomination because that part of the law is prescribing moral conduct for the whole of humanity, and not just Israel.

Is this distinction as evident as they claim it to be? To me it seems like the means to justify their own prejudices while still being able to function in the modern world. Just picking and choosing where they see fit.

Maybe I'm wrong. Any Biblical scholars (Christian, Secular, or Otherwise) care to offer any arguments?

Psycho Economist

Hate to break it to you, but this has come up a couple times already. Even at great length this past November.

I wouldn't be surprised if there are a few BC&A regulars on both sides itching to duke this out again, but you might find quicker answers (and lots of trolling to slog through) in the thread from then.

Thanatoast

Thanks for the link. I mostly lurk in other fora, so I wasn't aware of that discussion here.