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Old 07-24-2002, 07:04 AM   #1
CX
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Post Serious questions for King Arthur

Alas my knowledge is limited largely to the New Testament and Koine Greek. I am not a published professional scholar, but merely an interested dilletante with a modicum of knowledge and reading. My questions follow.

Please translate and identify the following partial verse (I am using the BGreek transliteration scheme):

ANASTAS DE PRWI PRWTH SABBATOU EFANH PRWTON...

Why does the word DE appear where it does?

What is the larger context of this passage?

Which significant MSS attest to this passage and which MSS omit it?

Why is this passage significant?

[ July 24, 2002: Message edited by: CX ]</p>
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Old 07-24-2002, 07:04 PM   #2
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Quote:
Originally posted by CX:
<strong>Alas my knowledge is limited largely to the New Testament and Koine Greek. I am not a published professional scholar, but merely an interested dilletante with a modicum of knowledge and reading. My questions follow.</strong>
Serious questions or another King Arthur Challenge?

Quote:
<strong>
Please translate and identify the following partial verse (I am using the BGreek transliteration scheme):

ANASTAS DE PRWI PRWTH SABBATOU EFANH PRWTON...
</strong>
Extrememly literally:

Having risen (ANASTAS), now/but (DE), early (PRWI) on the first [day] of the week (PRWTH SABBATOU), he appeared (EFANH) first (PRWTON)...

Mark 16:9
[[ Now, having risen early on the first day of the week, he [Jesus] appeared first ]] to Mary of Magdala...

Quote:
<strong>
Why does the word DE appear where it does?</strong>
'DE' is what is known as a 'particle'. It is 'postpositive' and, therefore, cannot be the first word of a sentence or clause. Usually it is second as in the example above, however, it is sometimes the third word.

Quote:
<strong>
What is the larger context of this passage?</strong>
All that good stuff that happens right around Mark 16:9.

Quote:
<strong>Which significant MSS attest to this passage and which MSS omit it?</strong>
Omit: Sinaiticus (Aleph), Vaticanus(B), ...
Retain: Alexandrinus (A), Ephraemi (C), Bezae (D), ...

Quote:
<strong>
Why is this passage significant?</strong>
It is part of the first verse of the longer ending of Mark which is absent from the earliest and best MSS (as you can see above in the previous question).

[ July 24, 2002: Message edited by: King Arthur ]</p>
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Old 07-25-2002, 02:00 AM   #3
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Well, looks like his majesty passed that one...

By the way, I've forgotten where you asked this, King Arthur, but you wanted to know what I felt about GJohn having Jesus say "No one can reach the father except through me".

Well, there are two possibilities:

- Either this is John's opinion and I don't agree with him;

- Or, John's Jesus is not just a man from Nazareth but the eternal word of God. Hence, 'through me' means 'through God's word' which does not have exclusively Christian connotations whereas Jesus does.

Yours

Bede

<a href="http://www.bede.org.uk" target="_blank">Bede's Library - faith and reaon</a>
 
Old 07-25-2002, 02:14 AM   #4
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Old 07-25-2002, 02:24 AM   #5
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I'm curious - what might "through God's word" mean? In your opinion, what does it say about who will be saved and how they will be saved?

best,
Peter Kirby
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Old 07-25-2002, 02:59 AM   #6
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King Arthur writes about 'ANASTAS DE PRWI PRWTH SABBATOU EFANH PRWTON...

Extrememly literally:

Having risen (ANASTAS), now/but (DE), early (PRWI) on the first [day] of the week (PRWTH SABBATOU), he appeared (EFANH) first (PRWTON)...

....
Why does the word DE appear where it does?

'DE' is what is known as a 'particle'

CARR
Actually, I think you will find it was the 'proton' which is a particle and not the 'de'.
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Old 07-25-2002, 04:39 AM   #7
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Quote:
Originally posted by Steven Carr:
<strong>Why does the word DE appear where it does?

'DE' is what is known as a 'particle'

CARR
Actually, I think you will find it was the 'proton' which is a particle and not the 'de'.</strong>
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Old 07-25-2002, 04:44 AM   #8
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Quote:
Originally posted by Bede:
<strong>Well, looks like his majesty passed that one...

By the way, I've forgotten where you asked this, King Arthur, but you wanted to know what I felt about GJohn having Jesus say "No one can reach the father except through me".

Well, there are two possibilities:

- Either this is John's opinion and I don't agree with him;

- Or, John's Jesus is not just a man from Nazareth but the eternal word of God. Hence, 'through me' means 'through God's word' which does not have exclusively Christian connotations whereas Jesus does.</strong>
Bede, I think you have a well-reasoned website except for this issue. I think your logic went south on you here.

It seems to me that by your reasoning, it means nothing to be a Christian other than to share comfortable traditions with a group of people who happen to have like-minds.

Do you have some actual theologian names and theories to back this up? I'd be interested to read more deeply about this point of view to see how logical it really is.
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Old 07-25-2002, 05:13 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally posted by King Arthur:
<strong>

{snip}
It is part of the first verse of the longer ending of Mark which is absent from the earliest and best MSS (as you can see above in the previous question).

[ July 24, 2002: Message edited by: King Arthur ]</strong>
Well done. I would like to formally retract any disparaging remarks real or implied I may have made. I thought you were blowing hot air.

Incidentally, you might not get such a response if you eliminated some of the invective from you rhetoric.
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Old 07-25-2002, 05:32 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally posted by CX:
<strong>Well done. I would like to formally retract any disparaging remarks real or implied I may have made. I thought you were blowing hot air.</strong>
You thought I was blowing hot air?? I'm hurt!

Quote:
<strong>Incidentally, you might not get such a response if you eliminated some of the invective from you rhetoric.</strong>
Playing the fool is fun. It's great when people think you're an idiot and then they find out you're right. Kinda like Columbo!
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