Darth Dane

Why would Jesus(as some say is God) doubt if God is with Jesus?

Jesus, by saying this, acknowledges that God and him are not the same.

If Jesus Is God, then God is lying, as God can not leave God, and impossibility for God.

If Jesus is telling the truth at that point, then a reasonable interpretation is that Jesus dies and Christ was resurrected!

Then, as Jesus walked it wasn't God, but the human. When Jesus gave his Life for God, in the name of Love, he became the Christ.


God never forsakes God's Son right?

Yet Jesus thought that God had left him!


Plz explain me what this means.






DD - Love Spliff

keyser_soze

Having read the rest of the bible, you can seriously even wonder about a section that doesn't make sense? None of it is rational, or ethical.

livius drusus

I really have no idea why you are asking atheists to iron out one of many Biblical contradictions and paradoxes, but whatever the reason, I think BC&A is a more appropriate place for your query.

YHWHtruth

Jesus is not God, they are two different persons, and beings ontologically.

Upon reading these words at Matthew 27:46 or Mark 15:34, some have concluded that when Jesus faced a painful death, his confidence in God wavered. Others have said that this was merely Jesus’ human response, an understandable cry of desperation by a flesh-and-blood man in agony. There is good reason, though, to look beyond such human evaluations based on surface appearances. While none of us today can know with certainty all that was involved in Jesus’ crying out as he did, we can note two likely motives.

Jesus was well aware that he would have to “go to Jerusalem and suffer many things ._._._, and be killed, and on the third day be raised up.” (Matthew 16:21) In heaven the Son of God had observed even imperfect humans experience torturous deaths while maintaining their integrity. (Hebrews 11:36-38) So there just is no reason to believe that Jesus—a perfect human—would be seized with fear over what he faced; nor would death on a stake suggest to him that his Father had rejected him. Jesus knew in advance “what sort of death he was about to die,” that is, death by impalement. (John 12:32,_33) He was sure, too, that on the third day he would be raised up. How, then, could Jesus say that God had forsaken him?

First, he could have meant it in the qualified sense that Jehovah had taken away protection from his Son so that Jesus’ integrity would be tested to the limit, a painful and shameful death. But God’s releasing of Jesus to the wrath of enemies directed by Satan did not indicate total abandonment. Jehovah continued to show affection for Jesus, as proved on the third day when He raised his Son, which Jesus had known would occur.—Acts 2:31-36; 10:40; 17:31.

Connected to the foregoing is a likely second reason for Jesus’ utterance while on the stake, that by using these words he could fulfill a prophetic indication about the Messiah. Hours earlier Jesus told the apostles that things would happen “just as it is written concerning him.” (Matthew 26:24; Mark 14:21) Yes, he wanted to carry out the things that were written, including things in Psalm_22. You may find it revealing to compare Psalm 22:7, 8—Matthew 27:39,_43; Psalm 22:15—John 19:28,_29; Psalm 22:16—Mark 15:25 and John 20:27; Psalm 22:18—Matthew_27:35. Psalm_22, which gave so many prophetic indications of the Messiah’s experiences, begins: “My God, my God, why have you left me?” Hence, when Jesus cried out as he did, he was adding to the record of prophecies that he fulfilled.—Luke 24:44.

The psalmist did not believe that his God had simply rejected or abandoned him, for David went on to say that he would ‘declare God’s name to his brothers,’ and he urged others to praise Jehovah. (Psalm 22:22,_23) Similarly, Jesus, who knew Psalm_22 well, also had reason for confidence that his Father still approved of him and loved him, despite what God allowed him to experience on the stake.

Max

spacedOut

From my Fundy days, I remember one explanation was that God and sin couldn't be at the same place at the same time. Therefore, as Jesus hung on the cross there was an exact moment when he was "carrying the sins of the world". At that exact time, God had to turn away from Jesus causing Jesus to feel abandoned.

There is no Biblical backing to this theory (that I know of), but it seemed to be the explanation du jour. Even at a young age, I remember thinking that it all sounded mighty polytheistic to me...

judge

Aramaic speakers (that I have read) say the greek translation here is a mistranslation.
George lamsa was of this view in his Aramaic translation.
Paul Younan of www.peshitta.org is of this view.
Victor Alexander www.v-a.com is also of this view IIRC (may be wrong about this check his online translation for yourself.)

beastmaster

Yeah, the only point of this quote is to allude to Psalm 22, in order to invent "further evidence" that Jesus is the Messiah of the prophesies and also to conjure up in the reader's mind the ideas and feelings expressed in Psalm 22. I don't think you should think too hard about it literally. After all, no one was present to actually witness and record what Jesus said on the cross. Its purposes are dramatic and argumentative.

anakata

Impaled?! What flavor of the bible have you been reading?!

YHWHtruth

Most Bible translations say Christ was “crucified” rather than “impaled.” This is because of the common belief that the torture instrument upon which he was hung was a “cross” made of two pieces of wood instead of a single pale, or stake.

Yet, what did the Bible writers themselves say about these matters?

Max

Secular Pinoy

He's using the New World Translation bible, the official bible of the The Watchtower Tract and Bible Society.