Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Jarlaxle · 12-16-2002, 10:58 AM

Is there a general consensus on the possibility of there being an infinite regress? That is, do most agree such is possible or impossible? If impossible, why? <img src="confused.gif" border="0">

Sr. Zonules · 12-16-2002, 11:59 AM

Infinite regress is quite a general and advanced topic. Maybe you should enlighten us (me) as to a specific example you are looking at.

Jarlaxle · 12-16-2002, 12:29 PM

Every effect has a cause which in turn was cause by another effect. Was there a first cause which had no effect?

Shadowy Man · 12-16-2002, 12:36 PM

If you are defining cause and effect by this statement:

Quote:

Every effect has a cause which in turn was cause by another effect.

Then the answer to this question:

Quote:

Was there a first cause which had no effect?

is no.

Jarlaxle · 12-16-2002, 01:01 PM

So then time goes infinitly backwards? If not, then I have evidently defined my "cause and effect" incorrectly, no?

St. Thomas Aquinas believed that an infinite regress was absurd. Did he come up with some type of proof for thinking such? What was his reasoning for believing that an infinite regres is absurd?

tronvillain · 12-16-2002, 01:49 PM

No, it's just that you asked "Was there a first cause which had no effect?" I think you probably intended to ask something like "Was there a first cause which had no cause?"

Jarlaxle · 12-16-2002, 01:51 PM

Oh. Ok, then was there a first cause that had no cause?

Shadowy Man · 12-16-2002, 01:53 PM

Jarlaxle:

Yes, perhaps time goes infinitely backwards.

tronvillain · 12-16-2002, 03:39 PM

I take the position that there was, but not because I consider an infinite regress impossible.

Philosoft · 12-16-2002, 03:51 PM

If 'infinity' the concept does represent a legitimate state of affairs, not just a mathematical stumbling block, I don't see why 'infinite regress' would be impossible.

12-16-2002, 10:58 AM	#1
Jarlaxle Junior Member Join Date: Feb 2001 Location: Starkville, MS Posts: 60	infinite regress Is there a general consensus on the possibility of there being an infinite regress? That is, do most agree such is possible or impossible? If impossible, why? <img src="confused.gif" border="0">

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12-16-2002, 11:59 AM	#2
Sr. Zonules Junior Member Join Date: Oct 2002 Location: N 47� 11� 14�, W 122� 10� 08� Posts: 82	Infinite regress is quite a general and advanced topic. Maybe you should enlighten us (me) as to a specific example you are looking at.

12-16-2002, 12:29 PM	#3
Jarlaxle Junior Member Join Date: Feb 2001 Location: Starkville, MS Posts: 60	Every effect has a cause which in turn was cause by another effect. Was there a first cause which had no effect?

12-16-2002, 01:01 PM	#5
Jarlaxle Junior Member Join Date: Feb 2001 Location: Starkville, MS Posts: 60	So then time goes infinitly backwards? If not, then I have evidently defined my "cause and effect" incorrectly, no? St. Thomas Aquinas believed that an infinite regress was absurd. Did he come up with some type of proof for thinking such? What was his reasoning for believing that an infinite regres is absurd?

12-16-2002, 01:49 PM	#6
tronvillain Veteran Member Join Date: Oct 2000 Location: Alberta, Canada Posts: 5,658	No, it's just that you asked "Was there a first cause which had no effect?" I think you probably intended to ask something like "Was there a first cause which had no cause?"

12-16-2002, 01:51 PM	#7
Jarlaxle Junior Member Join Date: Feb 2001 Location: Starkville, MS Posts: 60	Oh. Ok, then was there a first cause that had no cause?

12-16-2002, 01:53 PM	#8
Shadowy Man Veteran Member Join Date: Jun 2002 Location: A Shadowy Planet Posts: 7,585	Jarlaxle: Yes, perhaps time goes infinitely backwards.

12-16-2002, 03:39 PM	#9
tronvillain Veteran Member Join Date: Oct 2000 Location: Alberta, Canada Posts: 5,658	I take the position that there was, but not because I consider an infinite regress impossible.

12-16-2002, 03:51 PM	#10
Philosoft Veteran Member Join Date: Feb 2002 Location: Southeast of disorder Posts: 6,829	If 'infinity' the concept does represent a legitimate state of affairs, not just a mathematical stumbling block, I don't see why 'infinite regress' would be impossible.

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