FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > IIDB ARCHIVE: 200X-2003, PD 2007 > IIDB Philosophical Forums (PRIOR TO JUN-2003)
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Today at 05:55 AM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 02-20-2002, 10:12 AM   #21
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: Deep in the heart of mother-lovin' Texas
Posts: 29,689
Post

I agree... if your using it for an argument or to establish a law I think you better know what it "means" before putting that particular word in (it has potential to cause problems down the line) even though we currently understand the word to be what its most "commonly" used for.

That's why in debate and in law, terms are typically defined in the context in which they are used. I write legal documents (patents). "Common" words that have one typical meaning are implicitly assigned their common meaning at the time the document was written, in the context of the document (documents would be unbearably long if every word was explicitly defined in the document). That word is not later reinterpreted based upon change in the usage of the word. For example, if I use the word "screw" when referring to a mechanical device in a patent, it is not ever interpreted as "a slang word for intercourse" nor as "a ship's propeller." Uncommon words or words that may have multiple meanings within the context of the document are typically explicitly defined in regards to the context of the document.
Mageth is offline  
Old 02-20-2002, 10:36 AM   #22
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2002
Location: Pa
Posts: 113
Post

Mageth,
That makes sense...I would hate to write these type things (or perhaps I covet it lol!)

I got a copy of my deed for my house and banged my head against the wall trying to figure out what it was trying to say <img src="graemlins/banghead.gif" border="0" alt="[Bang Head]" />

Shit I can pick up the king James stuff bible and understand THAT better then my own deed

I always asked, "who wrote this stuff"??

But now I can BLAME YOU!!!!

Just kidding

You DON'T write this kind of stuff do you? lol!
Paradisedreams2 is offline  
Old 02-20-2002, 10:43 AM   #23
Contributor
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: Deep in the heart of mother-lovin' Texas
Posts: 29,689
Post

No I don't write deeds, just patent applications. Writing patents is a bit different than writing other kinds of legal documents, thank gog, but as they in litigation may end up being interpreted by the court, one has to be very careful how one says things and must pay close attention to the meaning of words if there's any ambiguity.

(actually, there are times when "ambiguous" is good; for example, we tend to say "may" rather than "can," "couple" rather than "connect," "includes" rather than "contains" or "has," "fastener," "coupling device" or some such rather than definite terms like "staple" or "nail," etc.)

[ February 20, 2002: Message edited by: Mageth ]</p>
Mageth is offline  
Old 02-20-2002, 01:15 PM   #24
Junior Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2002
Location: San Francisco, CA
Posts: 40
Post

Paradisedreams2

I only asked because I wasn't sure if you were actually trying to make an argument or just giveing some semi-related info. I take it from your susequent posts that it was simply the latter.

I was curious mostly because when I searched for the word "fetus" in the bible, it simply wasn't there, except for a single instance in a very new bible that is not regularly referred to in these issues anyway, so I didn't put much attention to it.

So, I was kind of wondering why they even care what the root of the word is, if there's no real reason to defend it in such manner, if you get my drift. I just wanted to be sure who they are: Homeschoolers, Xians, abortion protesters, bible writers, etc... I just wanted to be straight before going on a witch-hunt where there are no real witches. Glad I did, and thanks for the clarification!
--------------------------------------------
Still, I do question how the verses I cited are not to be taken literally for the content they contain. This is directly tied in with my question about who exactly is defining "fetus" (and why?), since it's not a word used in the verses I cited anyway, so it's irrelevant to the text or the discussion, other than as an aside.

So then, I guess I'm still looking for your clarifiction on the actual verses I cited, and why they should not be taken at their literal meanings, if you would care to address it.
Buckster is offline  
Old 02-20-2002, 01:47 PM   #25
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2002
Location: Pa
Posts: 113
Post

Buskster,
It was the "later" I just saw the word (which is derived from what I understand to be the latin word) I was just tossing a bone.

I haven't forgotten you, my daughters about to wake up and I've been at other posts (too many) I promise to post to you because I have some examples.

Shes up... gotta run I'll be back
Paradisedreams2 is offline  
Old 02-20-2002, 02:24 PM   #26
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Apr 2001
Location: Ill
Posts: 6,577
Smile

Quote:
Originally posted by Paradisedreams2:
<strong>I'm just on the list because I'm homeschooling </strong>
You're homeschooling? Wow, you're brave .

I think I'd mess up my kids too much

love
Helen
HelenM is offline  
Old 02-20-2002, 06:49 PM   #27
Senior Member
 
Join Date: Jul 2001
Location: Georgia USA
Posts: 927
Post

I was homeschooled for 5 years. I don't like to think about it. Who ever said homeschoolers aren't sheltered must be doing it differently that every other homeschooler I have known.
frostymama is offline  
Old 02-20-2002, 08:58 PM   #28
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2002
Location: Pa
Posts: 113
Post

Numbers 5:19-22 And the priest shall charge her by an oath, and say unto the woman, If no man have lain with thee, and if thou hast not gone aside to uncleanness with another instead of thy husband, be thou free from this bitter water that causeth the curse: But if thou hast gone aside to another instead of thy husband, and if thou be defiled, and some man have lain with thee beside thine husband: Then the priest shall charge the woman with an oath of cursing, and the priest shall say unto the woman, The LORD make thee a curse and an oath among thy people, when the LORD doth make thy thigh to rot, and thy belly to swell; And this water that causeth the curse shall go into thy bowels, to make thy belly to swell, and thy thigh to rot: And the woman shall say, Amen, amen.


Buckster,

Heres what I see in the above passages (though belly is not the same as "womb" the two words separately are found in (psalm 22:10) which reads...I was cast upon thee from the womb: thou [art] my God from my mother's belly.(looks the same here but look here also and see children in men... I need to repost the verse to show you))Desciption of what God sees as the "belly" (where the curse the woman drinks are but words) So it shows a "picture"
3Verses (I need to post another one sorry)
Prov. 18:18 The words of a talebearer [are] as wounds, and they go down into the innermost parts of the "belly".

Prov. 18:20 A man's belly shall be satisfied with the fruit of his mouth; [and] with the increase of his lips shall he be filled.

Prov. 20:27 The spirit of man [is] the candle of the LORD, searching all the inward parts of the belly.

This is what I see (you might not and thats ok) I believe the scriptures must point to Christ and God hides Him in pictures somehow conveying what has been done on our behalf. I have some verses, if any of the others I don't have are in question please ask me I'll get them because I think getting all the verses are a pain in the butt.

HERES WHAT I SEE in this....
On Jacks post I quoted in bold this is what I see...(Numbers 5:23) The PREIST writes down CURSES in a book (((BLOTS THEM OUT))) with bitter water. (next verse) He CAUSES HER (the woman) Isreal to drink the water that causes the curse.
*(same principle seducing her to the tree which is the Law = "under the law under a "curse")

Christ redeemed those from under the law by taking the "curses" to BLOT OUT their iniquities, in short this seems to indicate who the unfaithful wife is.

The unfaithful wife (the woman) Isreal is seen taking an oath, "all that the Lord says WE WILL DO"
***** HERES THE OUTCOME*****
(Neh. 10:29)
They clave to their brethren, their nobles, and ENTERED INTO A CURSE, and INTO AN OATH,TO WALK IN GOD'S LAW, which was given by Moses the servant of God, and to observe and do all the commandments of the LORD our Lord, and his judgments and his statutes;

This is the curse that Christ took upon Himself.

Does that make any sense? See as a similitude point toward messiah, hid in accordance to what has been written but the reality of the passages lead to Him.

I'm unsure about the belly thing but the verses above prove that it is not in reference to a "womb" because the two words are used in a verse together. I'm also stuck on the "Thigh" part but I'll look further into that too. I know it has to be in there because there are many references to the "thigh" as being touched and out of joint with Jacob as well as the Lords thigh in Revelation speaking of what He has written on it. But I can't go beyond that myself, its a big book and I'm still learning... I have not "arrived" lol!

I hope someone gets something from this because its stated that the Spirit of prophesy is the testimony of Jesus Christ so He is SUPPOSE to be in there.

My daughters sick, I'm a little slow on getting back to anyone. I want to try the first post though.

[ February 20, 2002: Message edited by: Paradisedreams2 ]

[ February 20, 2002: Message edited by: Paradisedreams2 ]</p>
Paradisedreams2 is offline  
Old 02-20-2002, 09:28 PM   #29
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2002
Location: Pa
Posts: 113
Post

I hate all the verse type stuff, I thought I'd wrap it up without it.


She(Isreal) is charged by an oath (her oath was to "walk in Gods Law" binding herself to a curse) and through Christ she is free from that bitter water(The Law)which brings a curse.
The Woman (Isreal) is CAUSED (or made to) to drink this bitter water that CAUSES a CURSE. It then reads IT SHALL COME TO PASS (future tense meaning prophesy)that if she had been "unfaithful" the curse shall enter her causing her thigh to rot and belly to swell. Christ took that curse, nailing the law and its commandments that stood opposed to us. So Isreal (the woman) in the verse is Free (her out in the prophesy)

I just rather write free hand it gets too tedious with the verses flying.
Paradisedreams2 is offline  
Old 02-20-2002, 09:36 PM   #30
Regular Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2002
Location: Pa
Posts: 113
Post

You're homeschooling? Wow, you're brave .

No I'm scared of public schools lol! I went to summer school every year through highschool graduating with either a D or skimmed by with a D-

I just HATED with a passion being forced to learn stuff I didn't want or care to learn about.

Now... After I left school I took years off hating learning, having to find my way back into the "joy" of learning. I mentioned it as "homeschooling" but I'm really going to "unschool" which is "delight driven learning" I heard wonders about it and it works for me so I have a "feeling" on this one. My daughters three and we just bought her her own puter shes OBSESSED with it... Thank God really because I have time to write on this forum and read posts.

We both have our computers parked next to each other so we can be close while we "play"
Paradisedreams2 is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 10:20 PM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.