Bobzammel

There's a bizzare passage in Corinthians 6: "Deliver this man to Satan for the destruction of the flesh, so his spirit might be saved in the end".
This is a strange passage. First off, Paul ordered this man "delivered" to Satan. How so? Is he excommunicated? Is he executed, hence 'destroying his flesh'? If flesh really means "sin nature", as many apologists attempting to un-gnostic Paul have claimed, then why would Satan, the creator of the "Sin nature" in the first place, be able to destroy it? Or is Paul seemingly just not making sense, going into another tantrum?