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Old 01-05-2003, 09:23 PM   #21
Amos
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Originally posted by Scottyman
Ok, I read the bible, it's been many years now but I studied it when I was younger and my interpretation was that they were the same entity. The bible is full of that kind of stuff and a lot of people take it way too literally. Our teachers told us many times over that it was considered to be the same god. I don't believe any more but that's what we were taught.
That's OK Scottyman, its not your fault and you don't need to know but would it not be nice that there was even one protestant who was aware of this difference so he could tell the others about their error?
 
Old 01-05-2003, 09:40 PM   #22
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Originally posted by Amos
That's OK Scottyman, its not your fault and you don't need to know but would it not be nice that there was even one protestant who was aware of this difference so he could tell the others about their error?
No I do understand and I was pointing out one of the seemingly unlimited number of examples of religious hypocracy. Even different faiths can't agree on the literal wording of the bible. Any book that says you should perform satanic like rituals or your god will kill you goes beyond absurd, it's ludicrous.
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Old 01-06-2003, 04:21 AM   #23
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Well I don't know about theists, but Gen.1 makes it clear that God created the essence of existence and Lord God gave form to this essence. In other words, "God said" and "Lord God made." This makes God the first cause of creation and Lord God the second. If you don't see the difference I can see why you are confused.
Amos, you never fail to amaze and surprise. Are you saying that you are reading this in a polytheistic context, and that you regard "God" and the "Lord God" to be two distinct, separate entities? Do you interpret the "Lord God" in this reference to be something like Greek Demiurge, the workman of God? Or do you regard it as part of the Trinity, or something like that (one god, different persons)?
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Old 01-06-2003, 08:24 AM   #24
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Amos, you never fail to amaze and surprise. Are you saying that you are reading this in a polytheistic context, and that you regard "God" and the "Lord God" to be two distinct, separate entities? Do you interpret the "Lord God" in this reference to be something like Greek Demiurge, the workman of God? Or do you regard it as part of the Trinity, or something like that (one god, different persons)?
Yes, two separate entities. God is the father, Lord God is the son, and woman is taken from man to provide for the continuity of man after the image of God. She is the womb of man and the third member of the trinity. Important here is to understand that God created man as androgyne with the potential to become either male or female and that Adam and Eve were not called into existence until Gen.3.

Gen. 1 is "God" as the essence of existence and in Gen.2 "Lord God" is "the word became flesh." In Gen.3 "like God" is added to provide input for the Tree of Life (woman) to modify the essence of God: "the woman saw that the Tree of Knowledge was good for gaining food, wisdom and beauty." "Like god" is the ego awareness created in Gen.3 after they ate from the tree of knowledge when "their eyes were opened" which is why they first felt shame (cf. naked with no shame in Gen.2:25 and Gen.3:7 where they realized that they were naked). No ego is no shame.

'Like God' is our ego and is built upon our conscious mind. It is good for preselecting food, wisdom and beauty to be tied down into the soul where it is added to the Tree of Life (here called woman) for the purpose of adaptation. This makes God the leading edge of creation and creation the active cause of evolution.

Notice that the word Adam was first used to identify the ego consciousness that was based on the tree of Knowledge and became the reason for expulsion from Eden. Redemption now means that the ego consciousness must be crucified and placed subservient to the TOL.
 
Old 01-06-2003, 11:20 AM   #25
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Cool Re: Logical Incompatibility

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Originally posted by Gary Welsh
If God created evil, then how can he be omnibenevolent?
I'm not a theist and not familiar with the bibble
But I was wondering if there is anything in the bibble that says that 'god' is omnibenevolent?

A quotation would be nice.

RedEx
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Old 01-06-2003, 01:11 PM   #26
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Amos:

I'll look it up when I get home tonight; my Bible CDROM is on my home PC.

As for 'God' and 'Lord God', I have numerous Christian friends, and they all claim that these terms refer to the same 'God'.

Please explain why you disagree.

Keith.
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Old 01-06-2003, 03:01 PM   #27
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Amos:

I'll look it up when I get home tonight; my Bible CDROM is on my home PC.

As for 'God' and 'Lord God', I have numerous Christian friends, and they all claim that these terms refer to the same 'God'.

Please explain why you disagree.

Keith.
According to my religious upbringing (can't stress how much of an atheist I am now), Christ is considered to be the embodiment of "god", hence "lord god". It gets really confusing because in the old and new testament they refer to "god" in different ways. He/she/it is called to Moses "I am, that I am", and "thy lord in heaven" and others as well, but the Christian religion clearly states that there is "but one god" in many passages.

It get's a little sticky though because "god" refers to him/her-self as being a "jealous god" and that we should not worship any other gods. I've spent a lot of time on this site http://www.skepticsannotatedbible.com/ and been amazed at the contradictions that exist in the bible. No one even know's if it was translated correctly or where it came from originally (before the discovery of the dead sea scrolls) Maybe someone can correct me on this because I'd like to know the scientific history (not theological please).

As Christian Scientists we were only allowed to read the first part of "Genesis" in the old testament and then the New Testament according to the writings of Mary Baker Eddy who wrote the "Key to the Scriptures. Again were were taught that "our" religion was the one and only true religion and others would be doomed to eternal hell for not following "Christian Science", go figure.

I don't know where Amos is getting the interpretation of the bible but is clearly in the wrong. Even the Muslims believe (not an expert) in one god as does the Catholic church. I'm pretty sure that Mormans, Protastant and most others except maybe a few fringe religions believe in one god.
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Old 01-06-2003, 03:59 PM   #28
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Originally posted by Red Expendable
I'm not a theist and not familiar with the bibble
But I was wondering if there is anything in the bibble that says that 'god' is omnibenevolent?

A quotation would be nice.

RedEx
Probably not but God is omnibenevolent in that Love as no opposite in itself. Hate is not opposite to Love but it is opposite to the amount of love that has been extracted into the temporal world of sentient beings.
 
Old 01-06-2003, 04:41 PM   #29
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Originally posted by Scottyman


I don't know where Amos is getting the interpretation of the bible but is clearly in the wrong.
Please Scottyman, don't believe anything I say but just put your finger on the page and read Genesis 1, 2 and 3 as if this is the first time your read this.

This will bring forth the concept "essence precedes existence," in that in Gen. 1 the essense was created by God and that in Gen. 2 form was given to this essence by Lord God. "Man" was formed in the image of God and therefore God. Period. So yes, man is equal to both God and Lord God but not until after assention as it was made known by the exclamation of Thomas "my Lord and my God."

Woman was taken from man (not to be confused with females who are also man in the neuter form), to be the womb of man and the place wherein the image of God as man (or man as God)is procreated.

In Gen. 3 'like god' was added to become the conscious mind (TOK) of man and was needed to gather food, wisdom and beauty in effort to enhance the image of man as God. I think Mary Baker Eddy should have known this because it sound very scientific, does it not?

This second mind is a blank slate at birth and upon this slate we built our ego identity and now have two identities wherein we are both temporal and eternal. We are temporal in our ego identity and eternal in our God identity (and therefore it is believed that we are 'hot wired' for religion). Because of this duality the prefix -hu is added to man to render man a 'human' being. -Hu is from -humi and means 'earthly' which now means that 'man' without the prefix -hu is heavenly if you allow me to place heaven opposite to earth (the above also renders atheism the position of impoverished believers).

Of course the Catholic Church believes in one God, but they also accept the Son as the living God, and see us as the manifestation of God on earth. All we have to do is 'realize' this and we are given a chance to do this every Sunday when we say "amen" to the tranformation of bread and wine into the body and blood of Christ [the universal]. Let me add here that this transformation must take place in our mind.
 
Old 01-06-2003, 04:47 PM   #30
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Originally posted by Keith Russell
Amos:

I'll look it up when I get home tonight; my Bible CDROM is on my home PC.

Please explain why you disagree.

Keith.
Save the effort Keith because you won't find it unless it is a wrong translation. The fact is that God is two causes removed form evil and cannot be the cause of it.
 
 

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