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Old 09-28-2002, 04:06 AM   #1
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Post Doublets in the Gospel of Matthew

Anyone who is familiar with the Documentary Hypothesis of the Pentateuch would know that the presence of doublets in a document is an important clue.

Here are the doublets in Matthew:
The story of the 2 loaves feeding thousands is told twice.
Matt 14: 15-21. – feeds 5000 men
Matt 15: 32-38. – feeds 4000 men

“a wicked generation seeketh a sign.”
Matt 12:39.
Matt 16:4.

“Whoever finds his life shall lose it”
Matt 10:39.
Matt 16:25.

“Eye offend thee, pluck it out…”
Matt 5:29
Matt 18:9.

“Move a mountain”
Matt 17:20
Matt 21:21

I was wondering if anyone here had any theories to explain the existence of these doublets? I couldn't find anything on the net. I thought I'd post the doublets here before deciding if their existence was good or bad for any particular synoptic theories.

Cheers, Simon.
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Old 09-28-2002, 05:05 AM   #2
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Try Carlson's Synoptic page. The doublets are often explained as half from Mark, half from Q.

<a href="http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/synopt/2sh/" target="_blank">http://www.mindspring.com/~scarlson/synopt/2sh/</a>

This primer here also explains this theory, tracing it back to Weisse:

<a href="http://religion.rutgers.edu/nt/primer/weisse.html" target="_blank">http://religion.rutgers.edu/nt/primer/weisse.html</a>

Vorkosigan
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Old 09-28-2002, 06:23 AM   #3
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Werner Georg Kummel writes (The Two-Source Hypothesis, pp. 232-233):

Quote:
The decisive evidence for a common, written source for Matthew and Luke is offered by the doublets, or double traditions (double traditions are texts presented by both evangelists, but in different forms; doublets are texts which one evangelist presents twice). It is noteworthy that Luke reports the sending of disciples twice: Lk. 9 and Lk. 10, the first time in parallel with Mk. 6:7-13 and the second in parallel with Mt. 10. Of course, in Lk. 10:1 there are seventy disciples, but as Lk. 22:35 shows, the saying in Lk. 10:4 was originally addressed to the twelve. Mt. 10:1-16 makes contact alternately with Mk. 6:7-13 and Lk. 10:1-12. Similarly there are doublets in Matthew, some of which parallel Mark while others parallel Luke's sayings material, for example, Mt. 18:8-9, and 5:29-30; 19:9 and 5:32.
Furthermore, there is a string of sayings of Jesus appearing twice in Matthew and Luke, once in a setting which Mark also has, a second time in a sayings setting which is found only in Matthew and Luke. The most important examples of this are:

a) "He who has, to him will be given" (Mt. 13:12; Mk. 4:25; Lk. 8:18; cf. Mt. 25:29; Lk. 19:26).

b) "If any man will follow me, he must deny himself" (Mt. 16:24-25; Mk. 8:34-35; Lk. 9:23-24; cf. Mt. 10:38-39; Lk. 14:27; 17:33).

c) The eschatological retribution for the rejection of Jesus (Mt. 16:27; Mk 8:38; Lk. 9:23-24; cf. Mt. 10:32; Lk. 12:8-9).

d) Persecution of the disciples on account of Jesus (Mt. 24:9, 13; Mk. 13:9, 13, Lk. 21:12, 17; cf. Mt 10:19-20, 22; Lk. 12:11-12).

e) Mk. 3:23-30 is lacking in Luke; but Lk. 11:17-23 offers a different version of the defense of Jesus against the charge of complicity with the demons. Mt. 12:25-31, however, recalls alternately Mk. 3 and Lk. 11.

When this evidence of doublets and double traditions in Matthew and Luke is placed beside the fact that Mark presents a single doublet (Mk. 9:35; 10:43), it is incontrovertibly proved that Matthew and Luke must have used a second source in addition to Mark.
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Peter Kirby
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Old 09-28-2002, 07:56 AM   #4
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Quote:
Originally posted by Peter Kirby:
<strong>
Werner Georg Kummel writes (The Two-Source Hypothesis, pp. 232-233):

"When this evidence of doublets and double traditions in Matthew and Luke is placed beside the fact that Mark presents a single doublet (Mk. 9:35; 10:43), it is incontrovertibly proved that Matthew and Luke must have used a second source in addition to Mark."
</strong>
Hello, Peter,

The above is one of the arguments for the Q source. And no doubt the folks in the anti-Q camp also have extensive arguments to refute what Kummel says.

But AFAIAC this whole debate over Q is mostly irrelevant hair-splitting, because it misses the main point. Indeed, if our canonical gospels really date from ca 100-200 CE, as I think was the case, then we already have a very good explanation for all these phenomena. The explanation is very simple: over all those years, each of the 4 canonical gospels was borrowing all sorts of stuff from the others.

Regards,

Yuri.
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