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11-14-2002, 01:37 PM | #41 | |||||
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Dr. Retard:
Yes, I agree with your first post. I am not claiming that God's belief MAKES rape bad, as I tried to clarify. I believe that the fact that God believes rape to be wrong is a way of proving that rape is factually and objectively wrong. As I tried to specify earlier (with a little help from Pomp), I take morals to be functions of values. No, we do not need God to know that if we value human life that we should therefore not kill. But what we do not and cannot know is whether we "should" value human life. Whether valuing human life, from some objective standpoint, is something we ought to do. I think people can differ from one another on this point, as they have, and they have certainly differed as to whether ALL human life should be valued. My question is, what logical support can be given for valuing a human life, or for any values? How can one know that one possesses the correct values? My contention is, indeed, that this cannot be done by purely human means. It is not a function of logic or empirical observation, it is a decision humans make. However humans often disagree on the subject, and if there is no God there is no appeal. My argument is not simply that without God we cannot know if our values are correct (which I would agree with) but that without God there are no correct values. A person whose morality proceeds from the value statement "humans have no intrinsic value" is logically on the same ground as a person whose morality proceeds from the value statement "humans have intrinsic value". There is no logical support for either position. However, if God were to know that, in fact, humans do have intrinsic value, then such value would then be proven to exist. There is, as far as I know, no way for values to be verified in atheism. There is no way to know whether nazi values are correct, and non aryans have no value, or whether secualr humanism is correct, and all human beings have value. They are both naked pressupositions which do not have sound argumentative support at all. In closing, I do agree that I need more support for the position that (i) It is impossible for humans to know morality without God. I hope I have done that here. I hold that it is impossible for humans to know that the values they hold are the correct ones, or that correct ones even exist, without God. I do not see how I need to show that learning morality from God should be easy. That was never my point. This thread contends that theists cannot justify their morality any more than the atheist, and my contention was that this was not true. A theist has a way of knowing whether or not his value system is the true one. I think this merely needs to be possible to prove that atheism and theism are on different grounds with this question. I don't see that it needs to be easy. Primal: Quote:
Again, I do not know how God came to know morality. I do not need to know that to know that his knowledge of morality is true. If you want to start a thread entitled "How did God come to know what was good?" then that is your right, but that is not what this thread asked me to address. I don't know how God came to know what is good and what isn't. But if He knows an act to be morally good or morally bad, that knowledge proves that those acts are indeed as He believes them to be. Quote:
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Again, God would not even have to be omnipotent for the argument to work. The truth of a claim could theoretically be established through ANY omniscient entity, even if that entity were no more powerful than your average middle-aged man. If such an Omniscient Mortal knew an action to be wrong, it would be wrong. So, power is not at all necessary to the argument. |
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11-15-2002, 11:03 PM | #42 |
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The question is how in the thesit scheme are morals ultimately founded/developed?
To say "We just don't know but God does" is no answer. That's like an atheist saying "evolution just does but we don't know how". To whoch you would rant ceaselessly about how much of a cop-out this answer was. |
11-16-2002, 06:41 AM | #43 |
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Luvluv:
OK, so your conclusions are these: C1: If God does not exist, we cannot know what values are correct, or whether any at all are correct. C2: If God does not exist, there are no correct values. Your supporting discussion appeals to these claims: 1. Using logic alone, it is impossible to know what values are correct. 2. Using logic and empirical observation alone, it is impossible to know what values are correct. Now, claim 1 doesn't support either conclusion. Logic is not the end-all, be-all of knowledge. Using logic alone, you cannot determine whether the sun exists. That implies nothing about the state of our knowledge regarding, or the factual character of, the sun's existence. Claim 1 is true, but it is such a trivial claim that nothing interesting follows from it. Claim 2 needs to be proven. Many moral realists (e.g., Nicholas Sturgeon) will claim that empirical observation does help us know what values are correct. They claim that, for any test you can come up with, for whether empirical observation helps us arrive at the truth in some domain, moral observations pass with flying colors. But, let's assume that claim 2 is true. Then C1 follows only if this is true: if God does not exist, the only possible way to know what values are correct is by use of logic and empirical observation. But some deny this claim. Some allege that we have a special moral faculty that is in an epistemological class by itself. Others allege that we have other ways of knowing things besides logic and empirical observation -- perhaps some knowledge has been hard-wired into us by nature, knowledge that we could otherwise never arrive at. We're still assuming claim 2's truth. C2 doesn't follow at all. Certain values might still be correct, even if we have no way of knowing the fact. It would be rash to infer that, just because we have no way of knowing some proposition, that it is false. I conclude that C2 is completely with support, and that C1 is supported only with the assumption of tendentious theses. But let's charitably assume that C1 is true. Then atheism's truth rules out moral knowledge. But this is only an interesting result if theism's truth allows for moral knowledge. It's only interesting if we can claim the following: C1': If God does exist, we can know what values are correct, or whether any at all are correct. But how? Presumably, in a God-world, logic and empirical observation don't somehow gain the ability to confer moral knowledge upon us. So how, if not logic and empirical observation, are we supposed to gain moral knowledge in a God-world? In this scenario, does God just tell us what values are correct? But why should we believe what he says? Because he's morally perfect and morally perfect beings never lie? But, ex hypothesi, we cannot know that, since we don't yet know that lying is morally wrong. So this can't be how God does it. Has he engineered us with a special receptivity to moral truth? But such a set-up seems possible in a godless world as well. So what is it about a God-world that renders us capable of knowing what values are correct, or indeed, that any at all are correct? |
11-16-2002, 06:47 AM | #44 |
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[wd]
[ November 16, 2002: Message edited by: Jagged Little Pill ]</p> |
11-16-2002, 07:53 AM | #45 | ||||
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Let's take an example from your bible that I can apply here. In hot, desert environments, handling pigs can be messy because they roll in the mud and their own feces to keep cool. You're not as likely going to have a healthy meal. But you don't really have this problem in cooler temperate environments and that's why some liberal Jews today are okay with eating pork. The Israelites probably figured it out for themselves that pork diets were harmful to the survival of their society, so they established laws and used their religion to back it up more forcefully. To me, this explanation makes FAR more sense than all powerful deity coming down and saying, "don't eat pork!" Quote:
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[ November 16, 2002: Message edited by: Nightshade ]</p> |
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11-16-2002, 08:07 AM | #46 | ||||
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Good stuff Dr. Retard:
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What would be wrong with an omniscient God saying: "I am omniscient. I hold the belief that I never lie. I hold the belief that lying is wrong." Wouldn't that cover it? |
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11-16-2002, 08:14 AM | #47 | |||
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Nightshade:
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Interpretations of the bible one way or another have little to do with the epistemogical potential of the positions of atheism and theism vis a vis morality. Quote:
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[ November 16, 2002: Message edited by: luvluv ]</p> |
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11-16-2002, 08:22 AM | #48 | ||
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Primal:
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As for how God's mind got to be the way it is, as I said, I do not know. If that is what your main concern in this debate is, I am afraid I cannot help you. Quote:
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11-16-2002, 10:11 AM | #49 |
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Luvluv has been trying without much luck to derive some interesting consequences from the following truth of logic:
(P) If God exists, it follows that God knows what is morally right. One consequence is this: (Q) People who know that God exists and know what God wants can easily come to know what is morally right. The "people" mentioned in (Q) might be contrasted with atheists, who have no uncontroversial means of arriving at moral knowledge. One problem, however, is that it is doubtful that there are any such people. That is, there is no reason to believe that anyone knows that God exists and knows which actions God says are morally right. The issue is itself highly controversial. Christians might appeal to the Bible, for example. But there is no good reason to think that the Bible is accurate. Furthermore, the Bible contradicts itself on many moral issues and can be interpreted in many different ways. So even if there is some reason to think God exists, and some reason to think God inspired the Bible, there is no reason to think anyone has used the Bible to arrive at moral knowledge. SRB |
11-16-2002, 10:34 AM | #50 | ||
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SRB:
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B) Totally irrelavent. |
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