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Old 04-17-2002, 06:03 AM   #11
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Half a life originally posted:

Quote:
Padre Pio spoke only Italian. When someone spoke to him in English, he heard it in Italian, and when he talked back to the person in Italian, the person heard it in English.
Did he only have this gift in English/Italian translation? If so, he could just have been a secret English speaker. For it to be miraculous, I think he should have been able to do it in any language, German, Polish, Tagalog, etc.

And was this ever independently tested? Let me guess: No.

Oh, hinduwoman already asked you this and you didn't respond. Do you know the answer?

[ April 17, 2002: Message edited by: BibleBelted ]</p>
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Old 04-17-2002, 06:04 AM   #12
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If Darwin had it correct, other animals are just as intellectually capable of communicating like humans, they just speak in different languages. But who invented language?

Dogs think that we are speaking in tongues. And to draw the analogy, speaking a different language could mean the same as the mathematical language of the designer universe; tautologies only have a meaning to whoever created them. Kind of a metaphysical thing perhaps, for example:

What would it mean if we couldn't speak, but instead, communicated in FL's 1+1=2 (Spock)? And what if I said 1+1=1? In the abstract (without sentience), why would I be wrong?

What's the point of language anyway, when there exists the logic of math and computer science?

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Old 04-17-2002, 06:14 AM   #13
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Quote:
Originally posted by WJ:
<strong>If Darwin had it correct, other animals are just as intellectually capable of communicating like humans, they just speak in different languages. </strong>
Huh?

Quote:
<strong>But who invented language?</strong>
Humans. When we don't know, but probably a long, long time ago.

Quote:
<strong>And to draw the analogy, speaking a different language could mean the same as the mathematical language of the designer universe; tautologies only have a meaning to whoever created them. Kind of a metaphysical thing perhaps, for example:

What would it mean if we couldn't speak, but instead, communicated in FL's 1+1=2 (Spock)? And what if I said 1+1=1? In the abstract (without sentience), why would I be wrong?

What's the point of language anyway, when there exists the logic of math and computer science?

Walrus </strong>
Walrus, are you related to Amos?
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Old 04-17-2002, 06:22 AM   #14
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Godless!

If Amos is Christian, then perhaps we are; if he is just another animal, perhaps we are still.

BTW, how do we know who invented words? What was the need to create language? (Why have it at all when FL exists?)

Perhaps answering those questions will shed light on your concern... .

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Old 04-17-2002, 06:59 AM   #15
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Quote:
Originally posted by WJ:
<strong>BTW, how do we know who invented words?</strong>
Homo sapiens, IIRC, was the first hominid to have all the equipment to make all the sounds in spoken languages. The throat has to be the right length and shape, and the lips have to be agile enough to make all the different shapes. That's why chimps and gorillas can't be taught to speak human words, although they can learn some sign language. We're also the first animals to have the brain power needed, although I remember some linguists hypothesizing that homo erectus and/or Neanderthals might have developed a kind of sign language.

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<strong>What was the need to create language?</strong>
Communicating. A group of hunters who can say things to each other like "You get the bison on the left and I'll get the one on the right" or "This is how you make a spear" are going to be much more successful than, say, a pack of wolves.


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<strong>(Why have it at all when FL exists?)</strong>
What does FL mean? Florida?
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Old 04-17-2002, 07:11 AM   #16
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Godless!

I was afraid you'd have to dance around those existential questions. Until we know the answers, speaking in tonges is simply another language. The question becomes metaphysical, is that language universally logical?

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Old 04-17-2002, 07:20 AM   #17
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WJ, I think I answered those questions clearly, without any dancing around. "Speaking in tongues" would only qualify as another language if it had morphology, syntax, and meaning, and if at least two people could speak it to each other and understand each other.
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Old 04-17-2002, 07:25 AM   #18
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Dave!

I don't believe you answered it. For instance;

"....and if at least two people could speak it to each other and understand each other."

How do you know this statement is true? You don't, do you?

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Old 04-17-2002, 08:06 AM   #19
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Quote:
Originally posted by WJ:
<strong>Dave!

I don't believe you answered it. For instance;

"....and if at least two people could speak it to each other and understand each other."

How do you know this statement is true? You don't, do you?

Walrus</strong>
Walrus, that's the definition of a language. If it can't be used to communicate, it's not language.

Quote:
From <a href="http://www.dictionary.com/" target="_blank">dictionary.com</a>:<strong>lan·guage Pronunciation Key (lnggwj)
n.

a. Communication of thoughts and feelings through a system of arbitrary signals, such as voice sounds, gestures, or written symbols.
b. Such a system including its rules for combining its components, such as words.
c. Such a system as used by a nation, people, or other distinct community; often contrasted with dialect. </strong>
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Old 04-17-2002, 08:42 AM   #20
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Dave!

Well we agree what it was 'designed to do. But getting back to the main point, how do we know what speaking in tonges mean to people? If it is a method of communication, how do we know whether or not it is meaningless(?) We don't. So, I really don't think you [we] can adequately answer the question aside from a sort of phenomeological experience.

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