Hugh Jass

What is the Christian stance on the fact that Exodus contains two very different versions of the Ten Commandments. I realise this has probably been discussed a million times here but I am relatively new and it came up in discussion with two Xians (they are ganging up on me at work since I 'came out'). These two maintained that the first set of ten were the 'real' ones of course but couldn't come up with any reason that the second set shouldn't get equal billing since they are both fundies and everything in the bible is true. They both copped out with 'mysterious ways' and 'meant for the people of that time'.
So I was hoping that someone could give me some more ammunition by explaining what a more informed xian would be likely to say when challenged about the near invisibility of the second set.

Grizzly

Hi Sandy R,

I don't think I know the answer to your question. However, I do know that there is no agreement on which commandments make the "Top 10". I believe catholics have a different version that Protestants.

here is a link that discusses the different versions.

<a href="http://www.uctaa.org/Essays/Reflections/reflection06.html" target="_blank">Which 10 commandments?</a>

alek0

Sorry, can't help. I've been asking many Christians the same question, and they've never come up with an answer which cannot be classified either under 'mysterious ways' or 'meant for the people of that time'.

Hugh Jass

Thanks, Grizzly, that is a good link and I have saved the info.

Jamie_L

<a href="http://www.atheists.org/church/hangemall.html" target="_blank">http://www.atheists.org/church/hangemall.html</a>

Another good link (more caustic, but good if you're like me and get all riled over people trying to post the 10C's).

Jamie

Ruy Lopez

I would imagine that Grizzy's reply referring to the "link" would be among the best explanations. Let me clarify a bit more. If you are asking how Xtian fundamentalists, (fundies?) would explain the different wording of Exodus 20 and Deuteronomy 5, I doubt if they can provide a logical answer. Acceptance of Bible as inerrant word of god ties up the believer in knots.

If you're asking why there are two versions and which one is more valid. Both are equally valid. deuteronomy means Second Law, I think, a mere reinstatement of the Mt. Sinai episode.

For an agnostic like me who considers the Bible as mere spiritual/religious literature of an ancient primitive people, the Commandments are no better or worse than the ideas of Confucius and Buddha. They're man-made and achievable by common sense.

You should have no problems answering fundies.

tony

IvanK

The various Commandments (someone came up with 600 or so after careful counting) aren't as much trouble as the flatly contradictory accounts of the Creation in Genesis chapters 1 and 2. At least there's no case of one Commandment stating "thou shalt not commit adultery" and another stating "thou shalt commit adultery if it's OK with her." Here's a good one for Biblical literalists: according to the Bible, was man created before or after plants were created? In Genesis 1 it's after; in Genesis 2, before.

Amos

Nothing was created in Gen. 2 but all was formed and so called into existence by Lord God.

Lord God can't create anything and God the creator of Gen.1 needs Lord God to form the existence of the essence that was created in Gen.1 by God.

Literalist have a lot more problems because they actually think that the first man was Adam while in fact Adam [and Eve] were not created until Gen.3. Both Adam and Eve are impersonators of man and called "like god."

IvanK

Glad to see you've got the whold Genesis thing worked out, Amos, if only in your own mind.

Next case: is the ratio of the circumference of a circle to its diameter exactly 3 or is it some other number?

beachbum

Whatever it is that Amos is smoking, get me some.