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09-28-2002, 07:50 PM | #1 |
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Is magnetism a relativistic phenomenon?
Hi guys, I realize that no one here like to discuss magnetism, nevertheless, I have some questions that need some answers. Please help me out:
1)Is magnetism a relativistic phenomenon of electric force and if so, why? 2)Or is magnetism a force created by magnetic monopole(if there is such a thing)? |
09-28-2002, 08:24 PM | #2 |
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#1. Since magnetism only appears when you have moving charges, it has to do with Lorentz contraction due to charges moving relative to one another--here's a page summarizing how it works:
<a href="http://physics.weber.edu/schroeder/mrr/MRRtalk.html" target="_blank">http://physics.weber.edu/schroeder/mrr/MRRtalk.html</a> |
09-29-2002, 02:56 AM | #3 |
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Thanks again, anyway, if magnetic monopoles are found to be in actual existence, don't this destory the stand that magnetism is merely a relativistic effect of the eletric force?
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09-29-2002, 03:26 AM | #4 |
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Now that's an interesting take on things. Hell, I've never been exposed to this treatment. Of course, I just started grad school last month.
Of course, if a magnetic monopole were discovered, that'd toss this particular treatment right out the window as a mere mathematical oddity. Or it could have implications for quantum mechanics (why should the existence of a given class of particle interact just so?). Fortunately electromagnetic theory as it is usually taught now would not change overmuch, since the introduction of a magnetic monopole preserves the symmetry in Maxwell's Equations. |
09-29-2002, 03:51 AM | #5 |
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Answerer:
Thanks again, anyway, if magnetic monopoles are found to be in actual existence, don't this destory the stand that magnetism is merely a relativistic effect of the eletric force? It wouldn't change the fact that for matter that does not contain magnetic monopoles, the magnetic field can be derived as a consequence of the coulomb force and relativity. Even the theories that postulate magnetic monopoles do not say that they are the cause of magnetism in normal matter--they are expected to be pretty rare, I believe. The existence of magnetic monopoles might just demonstrate that the relation between coulomb and magnetic forces is completely symmetrical, since uncharged magnetic monopoles would presumably generate a coulomb force when you move them around, as a consequence of relativity again. [ September 29, 2002: Message edited by: Jesse ]</p> |
09-29-2002, 05:59 AM | #6 |
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Well, are you suggesting that if magnetic monopoles are to be discovered, they can't be static or stationary and are sure to move about and generating electric force at the same time?
Anyway, how are magnetic charges(if there is) and electric charges related to planck constant? [ September 29, 2002: Message edited by: Answerer ]</p> |
09-29-2002, 06:26 AM | #7 | |
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As for the other, no charge is ever actually at rest except within its own inertial frame. This applies to electric charges now, and would likely apply to magnetic monopoles as well. |
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09-29-2002, 06:31 AM | #8 | ||
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Answerer:
Well, are you suggesting that if magnetic monopoles are to be discovered, they can't be static or stationary and are sure to move about and generating electric force at the same time? I'm not sure what you mean. I'm suggesting that they'd be much like charged particles, in the sense that if two are stationary with respect to each other there'd be no coulomb force between them (just like there's no magnetic force between stationary charged particles), but if they were moving with respect to each other there'd be a coulomb force as well as a magnetic force. Answerer: Anyway, how are magnetic charges(if there is) and electric charges related to planck constant? Not sure about this--it might involve QED (quantum electrodynamics) which I haven't studied. According to <a href="http://superstringtheory.com/history/history3.html" target="_blank">this</a> page, in 1931 "Dirac shows that the existence of magnetic monopoles would lead to electric charge quantization." Actually that page is on superstring theory, and I remember from somewhere that superstring theory is supposed to explain the "duality" between the magnetic force and the coulomb force--ie the perfect symmetry between the two forces in the Maxwell equations. So understanding these issues fully may require some pretty advanced physics. Here's an article on M-theory (which encompasses superstring theory) that talks about duality a bit: <a href="http://www.mkaku.org/mtheory.html" target="_blank">http://www.mkaku.org/mtheory.html</a> Quote:
<a href="http://adela.karlin.mff.cuni.cz/~motl/Gibbs/strings.htm" target="_blank">http://adela.karlin.mff.cuni.cz/~motl/Gibbs/strings.htm</a> Quote:
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09-29-2002, 07:53 AM | #9 | |
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Steven S |
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09-29-2002, 10:15 AM | #10 | |
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Maybe I'm just being overly pedantic when interpreting the "order" in which the relation goes. *Note: it is my understanding that the fine structure constant has never been derived from first principles--that is, one must require the concept of charge a priori to obtain it. But, as I stated before, I haven't completed my training (in fact, I just started my advanced training), so I'm willing to accept that I may be ignorant of the facts here. No slight, offense, or pig-headedness on my part (intended) here. [ September 29, 2002: Message edited by: Feather ]</p> |
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