Freethought & Rationalism Archive

sweep · 08-21-2002, 06:38 AM

This is a question I have 'dug up' from the depths of a discussion on "ontological foundations" - my question is based on an assertion made by dk in this thread.

posted by dk:

Quote:

It seems to me metaphysics is essential to the treatment of irreducible properties, so excluding metaphysics as transcendental moon shine impedes a fruitful inquiry. For example Kant�s metaethics is a practical effort to reestablish the categorical imperative within a metaphysical reality, but the delay demotes moral science to the authority of psychology that is ungrounded (detached from reality) by the mind-body problem. The entire inquiry remains speculative, and undermines the whole enterprise.

I don't understand- that was all a bit brief for me. Would anyone care to explain, please?

oh, i am aware that this isn't the right forum for the question, but i am fishing for dk as well as others who could assist me.

thanks

[ August 21, 2002: Message edited by: sweet as a nut ]</p>

The Other Michael · 08-21-2002, 07:08 AM

This does look like a better fit in the Philosophy forum so I'm moving it there. I'll leave this locked in MF&P in case the people you are interested in hearing from are prowling around here.

Michael
MF&P Moderator, Second Class

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08-21-2002, 07:08 AM	#2
The Other Michael Honorary Member Join Date: Apr 2002 Location: In the fog of San Francisco Posts: 12,631	This does look like a better fit in the Philosophy forum so I'm moving it there. I'll leave this locked in MF&P in case the people you are interested in hearing from are prowling around here. Michael MF&P Moderator, Second Class

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