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02-05-2003, 03:02 AM | #21 |
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When I was little, I thought it was "godfaring," as in "seafaring."
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02-05-2003, 06:39 PM | #22 |
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So far Christian explanations consist of "love is fear". Sorry, but no one would fear a truly loving God; but you would fear one who sends floods and puts you in eternal hell, and once you are dead and knows that God exists would not forgive you.
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02-05-2003, 08:11 PM | #23 | |
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God fear
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02-06-2003, 04:01 PM | #24 | |
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Re: christians, Why God-fearing?
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02-06-2003, 04:07 PM | #25 |
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Why create or allow Hell to exist then?
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02-06-2003, 04:33 PM | #26 | |
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02-06-2003, 04:40 PM | #27 | |
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Re: Re: christians, Why God-fearing?
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The way that Hebrew word is translated depends on the context that the word is used... it is sometimes translated as "reverence" but it is mostly translated as the English word "fear" or "afraid" - and in the NIV especially, the translators would intend the words to be understood in a straight-forward way, without the reader having to worry about "Elizabethan English", etc. The Greek word translated as fear is also sometimes translated to mean "reverence" (once). What do you think about this passage? Mt 10:28 "And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather fear him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell." Let's say "fear" was translated as "revere" (be in awe of) in both cases. "And revere not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather revere him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell." The first part sounds strange - who would have a fearless awe for someone who is hurting and killing them?? Let's say that only the second word is translated as "revere".... "And fear not them which kill the body, but are not able to kill the soul: but rather revere him which is able to destroy both soul and body in hell." The linkage between the first half and the last half is really bad... in the first half it is talking about who not to fear, and then it talks about who not to fear and who to revere. Also, in the second half it is talking about a threat - something that people would fear - rather than it being a good example of the amazing things God has (supposedly) done. (like create the world, etc) So how would you translate that passage - using straight-forward English - no "Elizabethan English" or any other type of obscure English is allowed. |
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02-06-2003, 04:50 PM | #28 | |
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BTW, what was the parable of Lazarus and the rich man about? (Luke 16)... it talks about the rich man burning in "Hades"... also in Revelation, it looks like Satan and the cursed people both burn in the Lake of fire... does Satan get a worse punishment than people? And is it simply eternal separation from God? Also, if hell means "eternal separation from God", how did Jesus visit hell, since he's God? Maybe he became completely human for a while, but how then did he escape hell without his God-like powers? Did the father and Holy Spirit come to his rescue? Why are there many verses saying things like hell involving physical punishment and fire? (see religious tolerance.org article) Many Christians believe that it is obvious that hell involves physical punishment... if they're wrong, then it would be the Bible that misled them - the Bible could have been much clearer about the nature of Hell. |
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02-06-2003, 04:52 PM | #29 | |
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Define "God"...and would the said "separation" from such entity, state, thingamabob cause me "suffering" or "pain" as understood in literal terms? Which brings us full circle... ...Why create or allow Hell to exist then? Let the real thinking begin. |
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02-06-2003, 05:16 PM | #30 | |
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