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07-15-2003, 11:43 PM | #51 | |
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Peace, SOTC Peace, SOTC |
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07-15-2003, 11:46 PM | #52 | |
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07-16-2003, 12:06 AM | #53 | ||
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I would offer my own input, however I find it hard to argue when I have no idea which interpretation I'm arguing against. As you are no doubt aware, even scholars are not in agreeal on all points. (Hence the many different subsets of Christianity) Define "Theological Contradiction"? (I think that's what you asked for earlier?) Also, does the argument that Jack offered earlier ("Are we punished for the sins of others) not fit the criteria for some reason? One problem I have with religion is that no matter how a person interprets the bible (literally or not... etc) they will always know their interpretation is the right one, and have "evidence" to back them up. Instead of rethinking their theological views, they will often block their ears and just say science is wrong, reality is an illusion. |
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07-16-2003, 12:16 AM | #54 |
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Also, if I may ask (unless I missed it earlier...?) why do you believe? Why bother to negate the usual need for "Logical-Material" evidence, and just go on faith? If you invested faith in a different religion first, do you think you would now be defending that one instead? (I guess this isn't really a fair question, as you have stated already that you aren't really that knowledgable of all the other texts)
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07-16-2003, 01:41 AM | #55 | ||
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Leviathan:
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I suspect you are as atheistic as I am with regard to the God of the inerrantists. Here's what you said about leprechauns: Quote:
As you have said, a-theism means "without theism": I lack belief in deities. The word doesn't actually mean "denies the existence of God", just as a-leprechaunism doesn't mean "denies the existence of leprechauns" (assuming "leprechaunism" is belief in leprechauns). It is merely a lack of belief in leprechauns. Dictionary definitions of atheism are notoriously inaccurate. |
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07-16-2003, 02:18 AM | #56 | |||||||||
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SignOfTheCross:
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The Jews were originally polytheistic. El was part of a family (he was the father of Baal, for instance). Over time, Judaism changed from polytheism to worship of one God among the many believed to exist: "MY god is better than YOUR god". This then eventually became true monotheism, the belief that the god being worshipped is the only one that actually exists. The Bible reflects this change of beliefs over time. Genuine scholars know this. Biblical inerrantists apparently do not. No competent Biblical scholar is an inerrantist. Quote:
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And you DO know that the Bible was written by flat-Earthers, right? The Hebrews believed the Earth was flat and covered by a solid dome, the "Firmament" in Genesis, to which the stars are attached. They still believed this when Revelation was written: some of the stars get knocked off the dome and fall to Earth. Quote:
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Are you ready to tackle the issue of human sacrifice yet, or would you rather deny the Bible on that issue too? |
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07-16-2003, 02:27 AM | #57 | |
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Incidentally, SignOfTheCross: would you regard Saint Augustine of Hippo as a competent Biblical scholar?
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07-16-2003, 02:35 AM | #58 | |
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Oops, nearly missed this:
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You are mistaken. There are quite a few Biblical scholars here. They mainly hang out in the "Biblical Criticism and History" forum. It's the main area where Biblical errors are discussed. |
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07-16-2003, 03:00 AM | #59 | ||||||
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"Knowing this first, that no prophecy of the scripture is of any private interpretation." (2 Peter 1:20) This verse reasons that private interpretation proceeds private inspiration, the right of interpretation having been given to Apostles and their successors, the Church, not ourselves. "As also in all his epistles, speaking in them of these things; in which are some things hard to be understood, which they that are unlearned and unstable wrest, as they do also the other scriptures, unto their own destruction." (2 Peter 3:16) We clearly see from Scripture, the right of interpretation was given to the Church. I might add this does not forbid one from reading the Bible, or even engaging in private interpretation, but should one contradict Church teaching they are subject to their own fallibility, and have thus exalted themselves above the cheif interpreter, the Church. My question, if the Bible plainly states the right of interpretation was given to the Church, and the Church, having done an exegesis of every single verse in the Bible, yet finds no contradiction, how is your assertion there is anymore credible than the Church? It's strange that the Church draws a lot of its theology from the verses that look to be inconsistent or even contradictory. Quote:
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Peace, SOTC |
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07-16-2003, 03:03 AM | #60 | |
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Peace, SOTC p.s. must go now, be back later. |
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