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Old 02-10-2002, 08:26 AM   #1
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Post A question about Tanakh

In the document

<a href="http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/theodore_drange/bible.html" target="_blank">http://www.infidels.org/library/modern/theodore_drange/bible.html</a>

by Theodore Drange

there are various references to “Tanakh”. I understand it is the Jewish version of the Old Testament. I didn’t find any reference to a Tanakh in the reference section of the text and I also didn’t find reference to Tanakh in the Secular Web Reference Desk. I found a Tanakh at

<a href="http://www.us-israel.org/jsource/Judaism/Tanakh.html" target="_blank">http://www.us-israel.org/jsource/Judaism/Tanakh.html</a>

If I compare the translation of Theodore Drange with this Tanakh, it seems to be different:

Is 7:14
look, the young woman is with child and about to give birth to a son VS. behold, the young woman shall conceive , and bear a son

Zec 9:9
the king of Zion and Jerusalem VS. king of daughter of Zion, daughter of Jerusalem

Zec 9:10
the one who rides the donkey will banish chariots from Ephraim, horses from Jerusalem, and the warrior's bow, and that "he shall call on the nations to surrender, and his rule shall extend from sea to sea and from ocean to land's end". VS. I will cut off the chariot from Ephraim, and the horse from Jerusalem, and the battle bow shall be cut off, and he shall speak peace unto the nations; and his dominion shall be from sea to sea, and from the River to the ends of the earth.

Zec 11:13
I took the thirty shekels and deposited it in the treasury in the House of the Lord VS. And I took the thirty pieces of silver, and cast them into the treasury, in the house of HaShem.

I found also another Tanakh and it was different from the previous one. Could someone please clarify this?

[ February 10, 2002: Message edited by: Ales ]</p>
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Old 02-10-2002, 10:01 AM   #2
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Tanakh is a three-letter acronym (Tav-Nun-Khaf), standing for Torah, Nevi'im uKhethubim - Law (the Pentateuch), Prophets and Writs (Psalms, Solomon, Esther et al).

As for the differences, you're talking here about differences of translation. This is caused by differing opinions about how to translate the nuance of the original into another language. For example:

Is 7:14
Hinneh ha'almah harah v'yoledet ben

The verbs in bold (harah, yoledet) are participles, in fact present participles. A verbatim translation would have it, "Behold, the young woman is in pregnancy and in bearing of a child", but this is too awkward. The two differing translations are two attempts to render those half-verb, half-noun forms into a more acceptable arrangement. This is of no surprise in translations, and holds true for translating the NT from Greek and Qur'an from Arabic.
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Old 02-15-2002, 11:08 AM   #3
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Thank you very much for your reply. I have an intention to translate in the future the aforementioned article into Czech. I suppose that the translation from Tanakh is by T. Drange himself.
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