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View Poll Results: Do you believe in free will or determinism?
Never given it much thought, but my gut says I believe in free will 1 2.56%
Never given it much thought, but my gut says I believe in determinism 0 0%
I've given it some/a lot of thought and I believe in free will 6 15.38%
I've given it some/a lot of thought and I believe in determinism 18 46.15%
Neither: I believe in a combination of the two 4 10.26%
Neither: free will vs. determinism misconceives the human mind/nature 6 15.38%
None of the above 4 10.26%
Voters: 39. You may not vote on this poll

 
 
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Old 03-30-2003, 12:30 PM   #11
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Originally posted by Aethari
Personally, I'm not sure how the term 'free will' is even useful in any precise philosophical sense. If there is any cause to our actions, our actions cannot be free, so in order to claim a person has free will, we'd somehow have to claim that a person's decisions and actions are uncaused. (Which, beyond invalidating so much apologetics crap that it makes the mind boggle, is simple nonsense.)
If free will exists, then it CAUSES actions, so the conclusion as stated above does not follow. Which serves to dismiss the 'nonsense' comment.
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1~ If a person's decisions are the result of forces outside of themself, then the decisions are not free.
2~ If a person's decisions are the result of forces inside themself, then their decisions are still bound by the nature of the person, and therefore not free.
How about "a person's decisions are a result of outside forces (including body/brain) and the application of free will."
As Neilium pointed out, "The nature of the person is the person", and your argument fails.
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We end up dealing with free will as "the ability to choose within a set of arbitrary and preselected options." In essence, free will only makes sense when it isn't truly free, as true free will would entail not only omnipotence, but an entirely necessary and uncaused essence.
Our free will can be applied only to choices we are aware of. Free will does not require omnipotence. Again, your conclusions do not follow.

Double Dutchy's post: The two belong to different levels of interpretation and can't figure in an either or question.
'Is this the Mona Lisa or a pigment-coated cloth ?'
Brilliant.
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Old 03-30-2003, 02:39 PM   #12
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If free will exists, then it CAUSES actions, so the conclusion as stated above does not follow.
Now that's somewhat interesting. I had always concieved of free will as a merely descriptive property, I.E. "the person can choose between A & B, so they have free will." You seem to be saying that free will is more like "the person has free will, which causes them to choose between A & B." I'm not sure precisely what you mean, but it seems that if free will actually causes actions, we're stuck in a whole quagmire of problems. In fact, we're still bound by the same objections I raised earlier. If you say that free will causes us to choose between A, B, or C (or any other finite set of options), the objection still remains that our will truly isn't free, since we're bound not to choose anything beyond the given options. Even more interesting, it seems valid to point out that if free will is a causal force and not merely a descriptive term, we have to ask if free will is self-negating. After all, if free will causes you to do X, you can't freely choose ~X.

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How about "a person's decisions are a result of outside forces (including body/brain) and the application of free will."
This doesn't make much sense to me, but I'll try to response. If a person's decisions are a result of outside forces, how can the "application" of free will change the decision from being forced? What does it even mean to "apply" free will?

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Our free will can be applied only to choices we are aware of. Free will does not require omnipotence. Again, your conclusions do not follow.
How can you call this free? By this logic, an evil demon could deprive us of knowledge of all our other choices in a situation, and yet we would retain "free will" because we only know of choice X, which is precisely the choice the demon wants. Maybe it's just a fundamental disagreement, but I'm not sure how you can call a choice free if we're forced into it via by malicious knowledge-withholding.

~Aethari
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Old 03-30-2003, 06:37 PM   #13
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Originally posted by Aethari
(...) an evil demon could deprive us of knowledge of all our other choices in a situation, and yet we would retain "free will" because we only know of choice X, which is precisely the choice the demon wants. Maybe it's just a fundamental disagreement, but I'm not sure how you can call a choice free if we're forced into it via by malicious knowledge-withholding.
And that evil demon's name is Fox News.

-neil (who couldn't resist that zinger)
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Old 03-30-2003, 07:44 PM   #14
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Default But seriously, a definition?

hi,

I think now might be a good time to figure out what kind of free will we object to or embrace. Also, some make a distinction between free will and freedom of choice.

There's the Christian doctrine of free will: which, IIRC, is that the actions of humans are not subject to natural laws, thanks to our buddy God. I think I can say with some confidence that this isn't the free will we are arguing about.

So, what are we arguing about?

Aethari, you make some excellent points.

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Kinda. Outside forces can affect us in different ways than internal forces, though. For example, we might not have the free will to run 100000 mph simply because it isn't physically possible. While some external forces might reduce to internal ones (especially if materialism is true), it isn't *always* the case.
If we could run 100000 mph, think how different our perception of the world would be. We'd be very different animals. The distance between here and anywhere else on the globe would be inconsequential .Telephones, cars and airplanes would probably never have ben invented, but shoes that never wear out or cause blistes would be worthy of the Nobel Prize. Our minds would be very different than they are now in our current, slow-poke forms.

In other words, I'm having a hard time imagining an external force having an effect on us that doesn't become internal. If we don't perceive it or aren't shaped by it in some way, it can't affect us. (bad example A virus is, for all intents, invisible to me when it invades my body, but it will certainly make its prescence known when I get sick. If, before I feel any symptoms, it's destroyed by my antibodies or the lamb vindaloo I had last night, it's as if it never crossed my path.

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I'm not sure exactly what you mean, but the "decision-making apparatus" isn't external of the person or of nature. In everything I wrote above, the decision making apparatus is the mind or soul, which in either case is part of the person and their nature. Mind/body dualism or not, the arguments I wrote above are equally valid.
I'll try my best, because I'm not all that clear myself: One of your objections to free will is that it's only true if our choices are limited. True free will, then, is the ability to choose options that we aren't aware of. This couldn't happen without some sort of agent that connects us to knowledge outside of ourselves.

Our choices are limited. If they weren't, there would be no choices at all. I'd argue that then the narrative fiction called the self couldn't possibly exist. I'd need a few beers first, though.

Peace,
Neil
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Old 03-30-2003, 10:13 PM   #15
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Default Re: But seriously, a definition?

Quote:
Originally posted by Neilium
If we could run 100000 mph, think how different our perception of the world would be.
I well receive your points. Here I just want to say: Your little piece of creativity is very amusing! The blood would pool. Wouldn't your shirt rip off? Skin? Hell, we'd be shredded! How fast do nerve impulses travel? Imagine the collisions! Could we run, jump, and exceed excape velocity?
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Old 03-30-2003, 11:28 PM   #16
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Originally posted by Aethari
Good post, Aerthari. I didn't understand your viewpoint, and this helped a lot.

Quote:
I had always concieved of free will as a merely descriptive property, I.E. "the person can choose between A & B, so they have free will." You seem to be saying that free will is more like "the person has free will, which causes them to choose between A & B." I'm not sure precisely what you mean, but it seems that if free will actually causes actions, we're stuck in a whole quagmire of problems. In fact, we're still bound by the same objections I raised earlier. If you say that free will causes us to choose between A, B, or C (or any other finite set of options), the objection still remains that our will truly isn't free, since we're bound not to choose anything beyond the given options.
As you define 'free will', then I agree. However, IMO it shouldn't be defined that way. Let's loosely define it as: free will is whatever we're talking about, when we talk about how people seem to be able to make choices.

Also, I disagree with the statement "the person has free will, which causes them to choose between A & B" (your paraphrase of my position). I would say "...which allows them to choose...". My position, then, is that we seem to have free will, which allows us to make mental decisions, which in turn cause physical changes in the brain/body. Making decisions is an active quality. If in fact free will is passive, and we just 'watch' as the decisions are made by the brain, then 'free will' has no real meaning.

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Even more interesting, it seems valid to point out that if free will is a causal force and not merely a descriptive term, we have to ask if free will is self-negating. After all, if free will causes you to do X, you can't freely choose ~X.
Hmmm. If free will ALLOWS you to choose, and the choices are x and ~x, there is no problem, and free will is not self-negating.

You know, we don't HAVE to choose. We can just choose to quit paying attention. For example, most of us have experienced driving on 'auto-pilot'.

Also, it's easy to choose between equally-weighted choices. The fun part is trying to choose something you can barely 'see', while other options are screaming for attention. Example: drug addiction. Easy to quit cigarettes, right? Just stop smoking! But what happens (when addicted) is that the idea 'I don't want a cigarette' becomes very small and hard to focus on, while your entire mental awareness becomes saturated with the desire for nicotine. Relax your 'will power' for a moment, and wham.

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If a person's decisions are a result of outside forces, how can the "application" of free will change the decision from being forced? What does it even mean to "apply" free will?
The outside forces causes the set of options we become aware of. In that sense, we have been 'forced'. But we are free to choose from among those options.

What does it mean to 'apply' free will? From the view of an individual, I think it means that we can affect the world. From the view of scientific proof, I think it is a falsifiable theory.
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Old 03-31-2003, 06:33 AM   #17
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Originally posted by Nowhere357


The outside forces causes the set of options we become aware of. In that sense, we have been 'forced'. But we are free to choose from among those options.
How are we free? We're bound to consider which option is the most compelling and choose it.
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Old 03-31-2003, 09:40 AM   #18
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Neilium-

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In other words, I'm having a hard time imagining an external force having an effect on us that doesn't become internal.
On reflection, it looks like if materialism is true, all external forces will eventually include internal components (ones that effect our mind and outlook). However, if we reject materialism and posit a non-physical "soul", it would be possible to have purely external forces in the sense that they could change and act upon our physical body but not upon our non-physical "soul." I don't think the point is that critical, and this isn't a debate about materialism, so enough commentary on that.

Quote:
One of your objections to free will is that it's only true if our choices are limited. True free will, then, is the ability to choose options that we aren't aware of. This couldn't happen without some sort of agent that connects us to knowledge outside of ourselves.
Well, IMHO, true free will would be the ability to choose amoung all actions/decisions that could be possibly actualized. This could possibly demand that, as you said, we are able to choose options we are unaware of via on outside agent. That would be one way to go about resolving the problem. However, since I've already asserted omnipotence is a necessary prerequisite of true free will, coupling that with omniscience to resolve the problem of knowing-all-possible-options isn't too grandious a step.

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Our choices are limited. If they weren't, there would be no choices at all.
Here I'm just confused by semantics due to the nature of the discussion: do you mean limited as in "there are a finite set of possible choices" or "we can only choose from a set that does not include all possible choices"?

Nowhere-

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Let's loosely define it as: free will is whatever we're talking about, when we talk about how people seem to be able to make choices.
I'll go along, but this seems somewhat self-proving, if we take free will to be "when...people seem to be able to make choices." That's nitpicking, though...onto the rest of the post.

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My position, then, is that we seem to have free will, which allows us to make mental decisions, which in turn cause physical changes in the brain/body. Making decisions is an active quality. If in fact free will is passive, and we just 'watch' as the decisions are made by the brain, then 'free will' has no real meaning.
I agree with all of this. However, as I was arguing before, I don't feel that any definition of free will less powerful than my aforementioned 'true free will' isn't really even meaningful. I'll try to present my argument more clearly in a later post.

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Hmmm. If free will ALLOWS you to choose, and the choices are x and ~x, there is no problem, and free will is not self-negating.

You know, we don't HAVE to choose. We can just choose to quit paying attention. For example, most of us have experienced driving on 'auto-pilot'.
You dealt with my objection with the second sentence there: I was saying that, given my interpretation of your first post (which you cleared up in your response), if free will caused us to choose between A and B, we were deprived of the free will of choosing neither.

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The outside forces causes the set of options we become aware of. In that sense, we have been 'forced'. But we are free to choose from among those options.
Well, that's almost an entirely different argument. I haven't addressed at all thusfar whether our actions are necessarily resultant from our environment and makeup, or not. Admittedly, I'm not terribly clear on where I stand with that: while a materialistic outlook would urge me to say that all our actions are just derivative of the universe's makeup and that we don't really make 'choices', I have a great deal of trouble accepting that everything which happens, happens necessarily from the "given conditions." For now, however, I'm going to stick with my argument that, limited choice or no choice at all, it doesn't really make a difference.

Thanks for the good responses.

~Aethari
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Old 03-31-2003, 10:40 AM   #19
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Default Free Will == Randomness

How about this proposition:

"If we really had free will (i.e. our decision was made independently of any deterministic mechanism) and your poll was a statistically valid survey you should end up with the same curve as for radioactive decay/quantum activity."

Any takers?

Cheers, John
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Old 04-01-2003, 12:23 AM   #20
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Originally posted by DRFseven
How are we free? We're bound to consider which option is the most compelling and choose it.
I think this is circular. Why do you say 'we are bound to choose the most compelling'? If you are right, then clearly there is no free will. What evidence do you have?
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