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Old 08-06-2003, 02:00 AM   #1
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Default prophecy duality

Is their anything about prophecy being in a duality form,supposidly taken place back then,failed and going to happen in our time

If not why do fundy xtians think that the prophecy is going to happen again or is supposed to happen soon since it failed back then.

I hope I worded this right and you know what I mean.
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Old 08-06-2003, 02:19 AM   #2
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If I understand you correctly, you mean something like prophecizing . . . prophesizing . . . making the prediction of something in the future . . . then progressively reinterpreting it as times goes by?

This is very common.

--J.D.
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Old 08-06-2003, 06:10 AM   #3
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Actually, double/dual prophecies, as a technical term, are supposed to be prophecies that have two fulfillments. The most famous is the "Messianic Prophecy" at Isaiah 7:14:
Quote:
Therefore the Lord himself will give you a sign: The virgin will be with child and will give birth to a son, and will call him Immanuel.
My copy of The New Student Bible NIV (it was a gift from bible camp) has this to say of the verse:
Quote:
Like so many prophecies, this one had two meanings: one for Isaiah's time and another much later. Isaiah urged King Ahaz to seek a sign from God about Judah's safety from its neighbors. Ahaz, notoriously stubborn and ungodly, refused.
Isaiah told of the sign anayway: a young boy would be born, and before he grew out of childhood Judah's feared enemies would be destroyed. Only 12 years after this prediction, the Northern Kingdom of Israel fell. The New Testament sees a further meaning in this prophecy, applying it to the birth of Jesus Christ (Matthew 1:23).
According to this website :
Quote:
The general Christian defense when forced to confront the reality of Isaiah 7:14 is to conjecture the notion of the dual prophecy. Isaiah was in fact delivering two prophecies, one that came to pass over 2,500 years ago as well as the birth of Jesus. There are two problems with this claim:

1) If we are to go with KJV's mistranslation, there must have been a virgin birth over 500 years prior to Jesus. This certainly would ahve risen some attention.

2) Dual fulfillment is a concept completely alien to scripture. In no way is it indicated by the text that it concerns the Messiah, nor is it indicated that it would occur hundreds of years later.

Verses 11 and 16 make it crystal clear how we should interpret the verse in question.
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Old 08-06-2003, 07:10 AM   #4
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Default Re: prophecy duality

Quote:
Originally posted by mark9950
Is their anything about prophecy being in a duality form,supposidly taken place back then,failed and going to happen in our time

If not why do fundy xtians think that the prophecy is going to happen again or is supposed to happen soon since it failed back then.

I hope I worded this right and you know what I mean.
The concept of dual fulfillment of prophecy involves the minor fulfillment in the prophets own time and the major fulfillment later on (typically in reference to Jesus) it is a silly apologetic contrivance and has no basis in Jewish theology. It's a way to shoehorn Jesus into a prophecy that didn't originally apply to him as evidenced by the fact that it was fulfilled long before he arrived on the scene by someone else.
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Old 08-06-2003, 09:19 AM   #5
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Default Re: prophecy duality

Quote:
Originally posted by mark9950
Is their anything about prophecy being in a duality form,supposidly taken place back then,failed and going to happen in our time

If not why do fundy xtians think that the prophecy is going to happen again or is supposed to happen soon since it failed back then.

I hope I worded this right and you know what I mean.
Similarly, I saw a tabloid yesterday which said, as I remember, the "Nostradamus wants you!"....yet, he was the one who said the World would end in July 1999!
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