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Old 08-01-2002, 11:40 PM   #1
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Post Formal logic, logical atomism, and referential transparency

What seperates a formal language from an natural language? Formal languages seem to rely on logical atomism and referential transparency, are there any other attributes that distinguish the two?
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Old 08-02-2002, 06:28 AM   #2
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Nial,

Please explain your four key terms for ignorami such as I.

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Old 08-02-2002, 10:24 AM   #3
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Nial,

The standard understanding of "natural language" is just of a language that is, was, or could actually be acquired as a first language by humans. So (respectively) English, Latin, and Esperanto would count. Robinson Arithmetic wouldn't.

A formal language is not a technical notion; it applies more loosely to regimented languages with some general, but not essential, features: they are literally formal, in that they can function in the absence of interpretations; they are artificial; their purpose is to enhance clarity and eliminate the ambiguities or complications of natural languages... and so forth.

So there's nothing that says that a formal language can't include referentially opaque operators. Some do, when their purpose is to model natural language more closely. But most don't, for the simple reason that it's simpler to reason with that complication removed. Same for vague predicates.

I dunno if that tells you anything you don't already know!
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Old 08-03-2002, 12:16 AM   #4
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extensional opactiy?

<a href="http://sowi.iwp.uni-linz.ac.at/Sorites/Natural_Kinds.html" target="_blank">Natural Kinds and Projectible Predicates</a>

<a href="http://www.cs.cornell.edu/Info/Projects/NuPrl/cs611/fall94notes/cn2/subsection3_1_3.html" target="_blank">Artificial Language vs. Natural Language</a>
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