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Old 03-09-2003, 08:53 PM   #61
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Originally posted by doc58
God wasn't trying to bring about anything because #1, any God probably doesn't exist and certainly not the God of the Bible and #2 if a good God exists, He never would have made such bad law.
Now understand, I'm not defending the Bible in any way, just throwing something else onto the theological barbeque.

Ezekiel 20:25 "I also gave them over to statutes that were not good and laws they could not live by...."

Are we, therefore, to understand that god is not good? If he did it once, could he not do it again?
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Old 03-09-2003, 10:03 PM   #62
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Originally posted by Christian
Looking at the American Heritage Dictionary, the only definition of "right" that fits what we are talking about is: "Something that is due to a person or governmental body by law, tradition, or nature."
Yes, a right is something that is DUE somebody. It's not something that is FORCED upon them. According to this law the woman has no right to reject said marriage to this rapist she most likely despises. Once again, the right to happiness does not mean that I get to shoot you the second you're depressed. I can't force you to be happy, it just means you're legally entitled to it SHOULD YOU WANT IT. People convicted of a crime aren't given the "right" to go to prison. Similarly, people who are forced to marry their rapists aren't gaining any rights. Their fate is fully mapped out from the get-go. Please, for the love of god, why can't you understand this?

Seriously, can you please explain to me how this law is any different than a "you break it you buy it" policy enforced in stores? Do you think that policy is there to provide rights to the merchandise? Is it morally good because it keeps the poor broken merchandise from being thrown out right in the store and instead requires the buyer to wait until he gets home to throw it out?

Quote:
Advancing women's rights is a morally good thing. Providing for the right I have described in a time and place where that right did not previously exist is a morally good thing according to the absolute standards of morality that I recognize.
Not a right. Woman = property. Woman gets shitty life married to a rapist who doesn't want her and can do anything he pleases to her. Woman = dirt. Law = fucked up. Morality verdict: bad.

Quote:
Your analogy fails on several points. First, this law was something that only rarely applied to a very few number of women. Your analogy is for some test that every male has to undergo. That introduces an entirely different moral element. If it was cultural in ancient Israel for every woman to be raped at the age of 13 then your analogy might apply. As it is, your analogy has morally evil overtones that the actual situation we are talking about did not.
Wow, that's pretty sick. So for you, morality is a function of how many people are affected? Morals govern how we treat the individual. As such it is wholly irrelevant how many people the law applies to. For example, a law that orders the death of innocent people is morally repugnant no matter how often it is carried out (at least is is under a system of absolute morals--such as you find in the Bible). It's true that utilitarianism doesn't support this view, but if you are following Christian morality, you are not a utilitarianist.

Similarly, a law that lets a man marry any single woman he wants simply by raping her is also morally repugnant. It means that rape is perfectly fine so long as you intend to marry your rape victim. Rape is always morally wrong. Any law which fails to universally punish rape (e.g. this law) is therefore always morally wrong under any absolute standard of morality.
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Old 03-10-2003, 03:59 AM   #63
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Chuck,

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Whether being a rapist's wife is better than being an outcast is immaterial.
Just because you choose to ignore a key element of the situation does not mean that it is immaterial.

Respectfully,

Christian
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Old 03-10-2003, 04:01 AM   #64
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Queen of Swords,

Quote:
Christian, do rapists make good husbands? Maybe even better husbands than men who prefer to seek a woman's consent?
Of course not.

Respectfully,

Christian
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Old 03-10-2003, 04:09 AM   #65
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Bill,

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Ah, so the murder of children in a culture in which murdering children is acceptable is morally permissible as long as there's a "sufficient" remedy?
Of course not. What have I said that suggests such a conclusion?

Quote:
Perhaps you should consider the logical end of your "defense"...
The logical end of my defense is simply what I have stated.

Quote:
You might also explain why historical context is germane when discussing the absolute morality of an immutable deity...
What we are discussing is a law given to ancient Israel. The abolute morality of an immutable diety is reflected in that law. In a different context and for a different purpose it would be relfected differently.

Respectfully,

Christian
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Old 03-10-2003, 04:14 AM   #66
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Doc58,

I disagree.

Jeremy,

My understanding of that verse in Ezekiel is that it does not refer to the Law of Moses. God "gave them over" to such laws by permitting them to embrace the laws of the pagan nations whose idols they were worshiping instead of God.

Respectfully,

Christian
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Old 03-10-2003, 04:17 AM   #67
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Lobstrosity,

We're obviously just talking past each other now, and I'm about out of time tonight. I'll think on your post again tomorrow and see if there if I can find some constructive discussion left between us.

Respectfully,

Christian
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Old 03-10-2003, 04:23 AM   #68
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Originally posted by Christian
Of course not.

If rapists do not make good husbands, why compound the crime by requiring a raped woman to marry a man who thinks so little of her that he forcefully took her virginity?

Would it not be better to pass a law which allowed a raped woman to marry a man who didn't start out with this very big strike against him?

I wonder how good a father a rapist would be.
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Old 03-10-2003, 08:06 AM   #69
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Default Round and round and round she goes...

Quote:
Originally posted by Christian
Of course not. What have I said that suggests such a conclusion?
Well, I suppose it might be contained in this very same post:

Quote:
Originally posted by Christian
What we are discussing is a law given to ancient Israel. The abolute morality of an immutable diety is reflected in that law. In a different context and for a different purpose it would be relfected differently.
If a moral law is absolute, it is absolute. Culture, context, etc., are moot. If rape is wrong, then it is wrong. Always and everywhere. If it is wrong, it should be punished, not rewarded.

Let's take a close look at exactly what you're saying.

A man rapes a woman. His "punishment" is to marry her.

What about the victim? She is condemned to live with the man who abused her. The man who took from her, by force, something she can never retrieve. Who exactly is being punished here?

You cite the context of ancient culture in your "defense", but you seem to ignore that in that context, a wife is the property of her husband. So, the wronged, deflowered, abused woman is given to her abuser as his "punishment?" This is the justice of an omnipotent, omnibenevolent deity?

Clutch hit the nail on the head: this is the worst form of situational ethics masquerading in the guise of absolute morality.

Quote:
Originally posted by Christian
The logical end of my defense is simply what I have stated.
As I noted in my example, the logical end of your defense is that culture determines the sanction for offenses. Because women were considered inferior, rape was simply not considered as seriously as it is today. Therefore, the only recompense considered necessary was to ensure that the woman would be able to get a husband. Her feelings, her freedom, indeed, any effects upon her whatsoever were moot. This in itself is morally unacceptable and yet that is the situation with which your puerile "god" is apparently quite happy to mete out his ineffective and obscene "punishment".

It is quite amazing to me to see the contortions of logic and reasoning that occur when people attempt to defend the antiquated ethics of a long-dead culture. It is quite clear that the naturalistic explanation triumphs here. These people simply didn't have the knowledge or experience (socially, that is) to recognize the moral deficiencies inherent in their culture. An omnipotent, omniscient, omnibenevolent deity could have, should have, and would have done better.

Regards,

Bill Snedden
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Old 03-10-2003, 08:33 AM   #70
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Old Man, I would find you a lot funnier if I thought you didn't vote.

Quote:
Main Entry: 3rape
Function: noun
Date: 14th century
1 : an act or instance of robbing or despoiling or carrying away a person by force

Thus mere despoiling of a virgin was orginally classified as "rape".
Um, you did notice the qualifier "by force" didn't you?

Quote:
Certainly adultery should be made a criminal offence, possibly punishable by death, at the instigation of the husband.
Do wives have equal shootin' rights? I'm just askin'.

Quote:
(I've said all I have to say on this matter and will not be corresponding further).
Those uppity infidel wimmins sure are scary.
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