Freethought & Rationalism ArchiveThe archives are read only. |
08-30-2002, 04:18 AM | #1 |
Regular Member
Join Date: Aug 2002
Location: Hell, New York
Posts: 151
|
What exactly does the KJV omit from the "orginal" texts...
I have never gotten a clear explanation of what actually is in both versions and I tend to get a much different story (as one could expect) from Christians to Athiests.
|
08-30-2002, 09:54 AM | #2 | |
Veteran Member
Join Date: Aug 2002
Location: Toronto, Canada
Posts: 1,146
|
Quote:
The debate about KJV is not just a debate about translation. For the most part, it's actually a debate about the underlying Greek text, which is known as "Byzantine text" (AKA Majority Text, AKA Textus Receptus). This textual debate is actually very complex. But to make the long story short, Byzantine text is somewhere in between the Alexandrian and the Western texts. Most professional biblical scholars today are in the Alexandrian text camp, so they look down on the Byzantine text as "very late". And it does seem kind of late... But, there are also some textual scholars today (myself included) who favour the priority of the Western text. And from this perspective, in so far as the Byzantine text contains a lot of similarities to the Western, it is actually more reliable than the Alexandrian text! So, although, myself, I'm very far from being a conservative, I do see a lot of value in the KJV/ Byzantine text. I hope this helps. Yuri. |
|
Thread Tools | Search this Thread |
|