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10-16-2009, 02:14 AM | #1 |
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The contradictory kingdom of God
These three verses broadly represent the inconsistency of Jesus’ teaching concerning the coming of what he labelled “The Kingdom of Heaven/God”:
1. “The kingdom is at hand”, implying that Jesus and cousin John Baptist knew exactly about it; [“From that time Jesus began to preach, and to say, Repent: for the kingdom of heaven is at hand.” Mathew 4:17] 2. “The day or hour nobody knows”, implying that the first statement was a strategic error [“But of that day and that hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in heaven, neither the Son, but the Father.” Mark 13:32] 3. “Not for you to know”, implying that the original message had been a flop [“And he said unto them, It is not for you to know the times or the seasons, which the Father hath put in his own power.” Acts 1:7] Put into perspective, Jesus and John were hastening their followers to expect the Kingdom of God to come SOON. A year or two later, it was apparent that the original urgency had been exaggerated. By Pentecost, Jesus had lost the earliest fervour and was now succumbing under pressure, excusing his original misdemeanour, and postponing the arrival for a time the disciples had no right to know! And we do now know that the whole message had been a bad dream! No Kingdom of Heaven or of God came for the next TWO THOUSAND years. Some say the kingdom came and continues to come, hence the logic to pray "Thy kingdom come", but the concept is too childish for adult minds; besides, Jesus explained nothing under that premise. |
10-16-2009, 06:59 AM | #2 |
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Being asked by the Pharisees when the kingdom of God was coming, he answered them, "The kingdom of God is not coming with signs to be observed; nor will they say, `Lo, here it is!' or `There!' for behold, the kingdom of God is in the midst of you."Luke 17.20-24 The bolded part suggests that the presence of Jesus is the key. Or there's an existential reading, that the kingdom is always here if we're open to it. |
10-16-2009, 07:14 AM | #3 | |
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The prayer “Thy kingdom come!” [now in the number of some 100 trillion in 20 centuries] is the monkey wrench in the works to upset definitions. You see, such a "vital" teaching had to be decoded by superior intellects, for the original proposition had been muddled by poor grammar. |
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10-17-2009, 01:40 AM | #4 | |
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a/ the Kingdom is coming soon b/ no one knows exactly when. Andrew Criddle |
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10-17-2009, 07:35 AM | #5 | |
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It now appears that the author did not really know anything about any "kingdom", he really did not know how "kingdoms" could come and the author's guessing or lying has now been documented for eternity or until "his kingdom come" whichever is sooner. |
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10-18-2009, 11:07 AM | #6 | ||
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10-19-2009, 06:47 AM | #7 | ||||||
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I think I might have a pretty good answer for this. Joseph Atwill, in his book Caesar's Messiah, presents us with an intriguing possibility: that the Second Coming of the Son of God in the Gospels was the attack of Titus, son of the deified Vespasian, on Jerusalem. He cites a number of Patristic authors who actually say that the destruction of Jerusalem which Jesus predicts was indeed that of Titus:
There are a number of other similar parallels like that, as well. I actually learned something from watching Hagee one day, when he identified the phrase in Lk. 21:24, "... until the times of the gentiles be fulfilled." as the change of context between the attack on Jerusalem and the future Second Coming, in the eyes of fundamentalists. However, there is no solid reason to believe that vss. 25-28 which follow are talking about a time separate from the other preceding passages. Said another way, while the author in Lk. has obviously telescoped to a future time, it is not clear that he has remained there. If vss. 25-28 are about a Second Coming future to us, the Gospels do not give us much information about this second return, only four vss. in Mt. and Lk., other than passing references; and without making it clear that they are in a separate context from the vss. preceding v. 24. The signs of the Second Coming would also be rather general. On the contrary, the statement in v. 27 "And then shall they see the Son of man coming in a cloud with power and great glory." sounds a lot like its synoptic parallel in Mt. 24:30-31: "(30) And then shall appear the sign of the Son of man in heaven: and then shall all the tribes of the earth mourn, and they shall see the Son of man coming in the clouds of heaven with power and great glory. (31) And he shall send his angels with a great sound of a trumpet, and they shall gather together his elect from the four winds, from one end of heaven to the other." If the synoptic parallel holds, they are supposedly talking about the same event. Yet, this is the very context in which Hagee says anticipates the fall of Jerusalem. In agreement with expectation, after each passage, the parable of the fig tree follows. Thus, the synoptic parallel about a supposed but unclear future second coming is a coming of the Son of Man in heaven just before the attack on Jerusalem! Now that we have lain the groundwork, to answer your questions:
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10-19-2009, 08:23 AM | #8 |
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Whilst I do not know of Joseph Atwill's book Caesar's Messiah (see above), I believe that a more straightforward reading of the bible would agree with Julio's interpretation.
In 1Peter 4:7 the author writes: But the end of all things is at hand: be ye therefore sober, and watch unto prayer. (emphasis mine) which ties in with the belief of a quick Jesus return. But in 2Peter 3:8 But, beloved, be not ignorant of this one thing, that one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. (emphasis mine) (what is meant to be) the same author is trying to explain to his audience why the no-show by Jesus by making out that Jesus is outside the bounds of time. The author tries to explain the no-show by blaming people people who had misunderstood the message of the '...holy phrophets/apostles...'(v2) 3: Knowing this first, that there shall come in the last days scoffers, walking after their own lusts, 4: And saying, Where is the promise of his coming? for since the fathers fell asleep, all things continue as they were from the beginning of the creation. but that just brings up the question of the ability of the '...holy phrophets/apostles...' to convey their message in an understandable fashion. It could also be read as the author of 2Peter saying that the author of 1Peter did not know what he was talking about - But the end of all things is at hand: vs ...one day is with the Lord as a thousand years, and a thousand years as one day. |
10-19-2009, 01:58 PM | #9 |
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In reply to Punk77: What is the most straightforward way of dealing with the fact that virtually every prophesy of Jesus' about the supposed Second Coming in the Gospels seems to have been fulfilled in Josephus' Wars and Antiquities? Sometimes a way might seem more straightforward, because it does not account for all the evidence. Is it straightforward to associate "And when ye shall see Jerusalem compassed with armies, then know that the desolation thereof is nigh." (Lk. 21:20) with the attack by Rome? Those conditions had already been triggered by the time of its writing. The verse in the Gospels that has the most difficulty with this that I have seen is: "Immediately after the tribulation of those days shall the sun be darkened, and the moon shall not give her light, and the stars shall fall from heaven, and the powers of the heavens shall be shaken:" (Mt. 24:29) However, there were reports of volcanoes upon the attack on Jerusalem, which is not surprising, since Vesuvius was about to destroy Pompeii in 74 CE and may have had an early eruption; and there may have been others at the basis of this claim.
Atwill has found dozens of these parallels between Titus Caesar in Josephus and Jesus. I have found about three dozen - in many cases with parallels too close to be explained by chance. I strongly encourage you to read his book, as I have been following NT scholarship disappointedly for some time, until I became of aware of his and about two others that I considered to be significant breakthroughs. Until you have evaluated these parallels, it may not be obvious just how probable this all is. Atwill is having some difficulty fitting other epistles into this scheme. I think he is off-base about Paul, for example; having him as fictional, whereas I side with Eisenman, in that he was probably related to the Herods and was probably a Roman agent. The passages you cite above, I believe, would have been written after the Gospels were written; either by the original authors or church adjustments. The Gospels would then be Roman propaganda, to make Jesus prophesy that Israel was now to be the Roman-controlled Kingdom of God (i.e. Jupiter); and the people writing the epistles had failed to understand this, but instead interpreted, as most people do today, those same prophesies as being about some event after Jerusalem's destruction, which we are still waiting on. Then, by the time of the Revelation, people would be using Rome's own fictional prophesies about the destruction of Jerusalem against Rome; using them to refer to Rome's destruction instead. The Rogue Scholar |
10-19-2009, 02:57 PM | #10 |
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Thanks for the reply and the recommendations RougeBibleScholar.
I did a quick google of Joseph Atwill and I will try this one http://www.caesarsmessiah.com/main.html first. I have tried to play the video interview on the site but the playback is very jumpy and, as it is down at lasting for nearly an hour, I will just have to leave it for now and hope that it will play more smoothly at a later time. I will also have a look at the messageboard when I can though I will have to register first. The people that I interact with are believers of a literal bible so if I tried to use any of the arguements that Joseph Atwill uses (going by the information you provided and some of the book reviews) they would just laugh at me. But if I point out things like Julio uses in the OP or the 1Peter/2Peter incongruity they cannot dismiss them so easily. |
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