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Old 09-14-2008, 04:07 AM   #41
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It is easier to see that the Greek text influenced the Aramaic translators of the Peshitta and caused the change of spelling of the GNZ.
Well at least you starting to back away from your previous claim

Previously you wrote.

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As I've pointed out in my previous post the form gaza was not an Aramaic term at the time.
Now you see the error you made. Rather than now telling us absolute certainties about what was present, you now merely find it "easier to see".

You dearly wish to be able to have acertainty , but just have pr4ecious littel facts to come to a certainty.


And still many posts later you have no alternate explanation for how the variation arises between the greek texts.

Only one explanantion has been given.

1. The unpointed Aramaic is ambiguous.

2. At least one greek text reflects this.

It is just a magical coincidence that in the exact place that the Aramaic text is ambiguous a variant arises between greek texts.

Your theory does not deal with or explain the evidence. So you resort to making absolute statements which are easily refuted, which means you then back off and admit they are in fact not absolute just "easier to see".

What you need to do is look at the evidence WRT the variant and explain it.
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Old 09-14-2008, 04:31 AM   #42
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
It is easier to see that the Greek text influenced the Aramaic translators of the Peshitta and caused the change of spelling of the GNZ.
Well at least you starting to back away from your previous claim

Previously you wrote.

Quote:
As I've pointed out in my previous post the form gaza was not an Aramaic term at the time.
Now you see the error you made.
Yes, I gave you the latitude to misinterpret. Before the Peshitta, in Palestine it was GNZ. After the time of the Peshitta, it was GNZ in Palestine. You just gotta believe that between the two it suddenly got changed. You gotta be kidding. Read what I last said as a soft version of the earlier statement.


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Old 09-14-2008, 04:37 AM   #43
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While you are at it you can explain this too.

In Acts 2:47 we have another amazing coincidence.

Quote:
praising God and enjoying the favor of all the people. And the Lord added to their number daily those who were being saved.
In the western greek texts we find.

αἰνοῦντες τὸν θεὸν
καὶ ἔχοντες χάριν πρὸς ὅλον τὸν κόσμον. (Kosmos, "world")
ὁ δὲ κύριος προσετίθει τοὺς σῳζομ�*νους
καθ' ἡμ�*ραν ἐπὶ τὸ αὐτό ἐν τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ.

The Byzantine family of texts have λαὸς (Laos, "people") instead.

How can we explain this variation?

Easy.

The word used in the peshitta is Ama, (people)

The translator of the Bezan text mistakenly read Alma, (world)

The Aramaic words look almost the same, only one letter difference.

Same phenomenon yet again. The Bezan translator makes an error ,resulting in the variation.

What an amazing coincidence this happens at the precise place where the Aramaic has ama which looks like alma .:devil1:
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Old 09-14-2008, 04:47 AM   #44
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Yes, I gave you the latitude to misinterpret. Before the Peshitta, in Palestine it was GNZ. After the time of the Peshitta, it was GNZ in Palestine.


spin
You have not demonstrated this yet. You need to demonstrate....

When each text was written and that they did not undergo any editing. You are unable to do this, so your theory is only as strong as your inability to do this. Sorry.

You just dont have enough information to make the certain statements you need to make.

But you have another problem now, Acts 2:47.
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Old 09-14-2008, 05:03 AM   #45
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Yes, I gave you the latitude to misinterpret. Before the Peshitta, in Palestine it was GNZ. After the time of the Peshitta, it was GNZ in Palestine.
You have not demonstrated this yet. When each text was written and that they did not undergo any editing.
Why do you have to cut your own throat?


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