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Old 09-09-2008, 05:26 AM   #1
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Default Transliterating, the peshitta and the greek

Since Spin is back I thought I might post a thread looking again at an issue we looked at a while ago. BTW welcome back, I hope all is well with you..

In this thread the argument was made that certain greek words transliterated in the peshitta are evidence that the peshitta must have been translated from the greek. After all, if the peshitta precedes the greek then why did the peshitta authors not just use the Aramaic words.
The major problem with this is that it works the other way. The greek versions of the NT contain many Aramaic words, also transliterated. The same argument could be used in reverse.

Acts 8:27 is one such example, which contains the Aramaic word for treasure which is gaza. Even though there is aperfectly good word for treasure in greek, θησαυρός, "thesauros."

Quote:
So he started out, and on his way he met an Ethiopian eunuch, an important official in charge of all the treasury(GAZA) of Candace, queen of the Ethiopians. This man had gone to Jerusalem to worship,
See here for a picture of the text in an interlinear greek/english version.

Here is Strongs entry.



Looking to the peshitta we find something very interesting. The Aramaic worg gaza when unpointed could be either masculine or feminine.

See here for a picture of the text

Paul Younan comments.

Quote:
We'll notice that the word "gaza" ends with the suffix of the third person possessive (-h), which in Aramaic could mean "her treasure", or "his treasure", depending on vocalization. In the ancient script, however, the vowel markings were not present. So a translator must attempt to determine the proper translation with the help of the surrounding text.

In this case, no such help is found. In unpointed Aramaic it is indeterminate, except in the case of the plural of masculine nouns.
Vowel markings were not added until around the 5th or 6th century. Anyone translating from Aramaic to greek prior to this would have to decide whether it was masculine of feminine by looking to the context.

Most translators from Aramaic to greek went with the feminine but some made the mistake of using the masculine form. After all we have the eunuch (male) and Candace(female) in the same sentence. An easy slip to make.

The Bezan text translator went with the masculine form in the greek.

See here for a picture of the text.

This seems pretty plain evidence that Acts was first written in Aramaic and later translated into greek and not the other way around.

*Thanks and credit to Paul Younan for this work.
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Old 09-09-2008, 07:49 AM   #2
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Originally Posted by judge View Post
Since Spin is back I thought I might post a thread looking again at an issue we looked at a while ago. BTW welcome back, I hope all is well with you..

In this thread the argument was made that certain greek words transliterated in the peshitta are evidence that the peshitta must have been translated from the greek. After all, if the peshitta precedes the greek then why did the peshitta authors not just use the Aramaic words.
The major problem with this is that it works the other way. The greek versions of the NT contain many Aramaic words, also transliterated. The same argument could be used in reverse.

Acts 8:27 is one such example, which contains the Aramaic word for treasure which is gaza. Even though there is aperfectly good word for treasure in greek, θησαυρός, "thesauros."

Quote:
So he started out, and on his way he met an Ethiopian eunuch, an important official in charge of all the treasury(GAZA) of Candace, queen of the Ethiopians. This man had gone to Jerusalem to worship,
See here for a picture of the text in an interlinear greek/english version.

Here is Strongs entry.



Looking to the peshitta we find something very interesting. The Aramaic worg gaza when unpointed could be either masculine or feminine.

See here for a picture of the text

Paul Younan comments.

Quote:
We'll notice that the word "gaza" ends with the suffix of the third person possessive (-h), which in Aramaic could mean "her treasure", or "his treasure", depending on vocalization. In the ancient script, however, the vowel markings were not present. So a translator must attempt to determine the proper translation with the help of the surrounding text.

In this case, no such help is found. In unpointed Aramaic it is indeterminate, except in the case of the plural of masculine nouns.
Vowel markings were not added until around the 5th or 6th century. Anyone translating from Aramaic to greek prior to this would have to decide whether it was masculine of feminine by looking to the context.

Most translators from Aramaic to greek went with the feminine but some made the mistake of using the masculine form. After all we have the eunuch (male) and Candace(female) in the same sentence. An easy slip to make.

The Bezan text translator went with the masculine form in the greek.

See here for a picture of the text.

This seems pretty plain evidence that Acts was first written in Aramaic and later translated into greek and not the other way around.

*Thanks and credit to Paul Younan for this work.
Liddell & Scott: Gaza (Can be slow: wait for it. Note the last two words.)


:deadhorse:


:wide:

(Is there a blind-leading-the-blind-into-the-ditch smilie in circulation?)


spin
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Old 09-10-2008, 12:02 AM   #3
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Originally Posted by spin View Post
Liddell & Scott: Gaza (Can be slow: wait for it. Note the last two words.)

What's your point? That you imagine gaza is Persian and not Aramaic?

I can only conclude this as the last two words in your link are as the last two words are Persian word. Younan comments on this.

Quote:
Actually if we want to get ultra-technical the Persian word for "treasure" is ganj, from the Sanskrit gañja, it is closely related to both the Hebrew "geniza" and the old Aramaic "ganaza". The old Babylonian (Akkadian) was "Ganzu", so this is most likely an old Akkadian word that made its way into Aramaic, Hebrew and Persian. Ultimately, the origin of the word is Semitic. As you know, Persian was heavily influenced by Akkadian, and even borrowed the cuneiform writing system of Mesopotamia.

In later Aramaic, the Nun was dropped and "gnza" became "gza."

The Greek "Gaza" comes from the Aramaic "Gaza", and not the Persian "Ganj".
But as you and I both know this is all irrelevant. Even if the word were originally Persian (which it is obviously not) it makes no difference.

We need an explanation for how the greek texts came to be split between his treasure and her treasure.

The answer is simple. The unpointed Aramaic could be translated either way!
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Old 09-10-2008, 12:58 AM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by judge View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Liddell & Scott: Gaza (Can be slow: wait for it. Note the last two words.)

What's your point? That you imagine gaza is Persian and not Aramaic?

I can only conclude this as the last two words in your link are as the last two words are Persian word. Younan comments on this.

Quote:
Actually if we want to get ultra-technical the Persian word for "treasure" is ganj, from the Sanskrit gañja, it is closely related to both the Hebrew "geniza" and the old Aramaic "ganaza". The old Babylonian (Akkadian) was "Ganzu", so this is most likely an old Akkadian word that made its way into Aramaic, Hebrew and Persian. Ultimately, the origin of the word is Semitic. As you know, Persian was heavily influenced by Akkadian, and even borrowed the cuneiform writing system of Mesopotamia.

In later Aramaic, the Nun was dropped and "gnza" became "gza."

The Greek "Gaza" comes from the Aramaic "Gaza", and not the Persian "Ganj".
But as you and I both know this is all irrelevant. Even if the word were originally Persian (which it is obviously not) it makes no difference.

We need an explanation for how the greek texts came to be split between his treasure and her treasure.

The answer is simple. The unpointed Aramaic could be translated either way!
This is ever so hopeful. What would make your source conjecture that a translator misread the Aramaic and declined the noun wrongly? It is a wonderful flight of fancy to suppose that the fellow translated unpointed Aramaic, made a mistake in the gender despite the proximity of the noun to the feminine owner and thus came up with a masculine declination.




spin
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Old 09-10-2008, 04:49 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
This is ever so hopeful. What would make your source conjecture that a translator misread the Aramaic and declined the noun wrongly? It is a wonderful flight of fancy to suppose that the fellow translated unpointed Aramaic, made a mistake in the gender despite the proximity of the noun to the feminine owner and thus came up with a masculine declination.

spin
Very flowery stuff

1.We have some greek texts with his treasure and some with her treasure.

2. We have an explanation for how this happened.

3. You have no alternate explanation.

What this means is, you dont deal with the evidence. You mock, you ridicule, but what you have not done is deal with the evidence.
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Old 09-10-2008, 05:09 AM   #6
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Originally Posted by judge View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
This is ever so hopeful. What would make your source conjecture that a translator misread the Aramaic and declined the noun wrongly? It is a wonderful flight of fancy to suppose that the fellow translated unpointed Aramaic, made a mistake in the gender despite the proximity of the noun to the feminine owner and thus came up with a masculine declination.

spin
Very flowery stuff

1.We have some greek texts with his treasure and some with her treasure.
Actually, we seem to have a Greek text. Please cite what that text actually says -- and while we're there what does the Latin version contained in that manuscript say?

Quote:
Originally Posted by judge View Post
2. We have an explanation for how this happened.
Now could we have a rational one? One that takes into consideration the weight of all the other manuscripts rather than depending on a conjecture about one alone?

Quote:
Originally Posted by judge View Post
3. You have no alternate explanation.
I haven't provided you with one.

Have you seen the Greek word gazofulakion?

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Originally Posted by judge View Post
What this means is, you dont deal with the evidence. You mock, you ridicule, but what you have not done is deal with the evidence.
You've perennially caught with your pants down, blindly accepting this stuff. I suppose all you can do is avoid the subject you initiate.

:deadhorse:


spin
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Old 09-10-2008, 12:38 PM   #7
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I haven't provided you with one
So...you have one but are keeping it a secret?

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Originally Posted by spin View Post
Have you seen the Greek word gazofulakion?
Yes I have seen it. Here is the greek english interlinear of Luke 21:1, where it occurs.

Here is the Aramaic.



The Aramaic contains the Aramaic word beth gaza. The greek contains a compound word for this Aramaic word, containing the original Aramaic word gaza. That greek word is gazophulakion.
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Old 09-10-2008, 12:53 PM   #8
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Quote:
Originally Posted by judge View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
I haven't provided you with one
So...you have one but are keeping it a secret?

Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Have you seen the Greek word gazofulakion?
Yes I have seen it. Here is the greek english interlinear of Luke 21:1, where it occurs.

Here is the Aramaic.



The Aramaic contains the Aramaic word beth gaza. The greek contains a compound word for this Aramaic word, containing the original Aramaic word gaza. That greek word is gazophulakion.
The word γάζα, ης, ἡ is from the Persian ganuÅ treasure and is found as a loanword in Greek since Theophrastus, Pl. 8, 11, 5; and in Polybius.; Diodorus Siculius.; Plutarch ; Appian, Mithrid. 23 §93; Dit., Or. (Orientis Graeci Inscriptiones Selectae, ed. WDittenberger, 2 vols. 1903-5) 54, 21f;


γαζοφυλακει̂ον, ου, τό (v.l. γαζοφυλάκιον, preferred by Bl-D. §13) lit. treasure room, treasury, is found in Diod. S. 9, 12, 2; Strabo 7, 6, 1; Dit., Or. 225 (Didyma, iii b.c.), among other places in secular Greek writings.

Did these Greek authors these words from Aramaic?

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Old 09-10-2008, 02:02 PM   #9
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judge,

you didn't respond to this:
Actually, we seem to have a Greek text. Please cite what that text actually says -- and while we're there what does the Latin version contained in that manuscript say?
I put the word "a" in italics to show the reality behind your little deception:
We have some greek texts with his treasure and some with her treasure.
I also asked you for the actual words of the one text, Codex Bezae, on which your source based his conjecture on. I also asked for the Latin (the codex has both Greek and Latin) to see how it is rendered there. The masculine declension is what needs to be seen.

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Originally Posted by judge View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
I haven't provided you with one
So...you have one but are keeping it a secret?
There was a reason why I provided you with this:
Quote:
Originally Posted by judge View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by spin View Post
Have you seen the Greek word gazofulakion?
Yes I have seen it. Here is the greek english interlinear of Luke 21:1, where it occurs.

Here is the Aramaic.



The Aramaic contains the Aramaic word beth gaza. The greek contains a compound word for this Aramaic word, containing the original Aramaic word gaza. That greek word is gazophulakion.
You'll note of course two things:
  1. the form of the first morpheme gazo-; and
  2. the significance of the second, ie "n. hold, cage, prison", significance not derivable from BYT GZH, house of treasure, while the more generic contrary to Aramaic is true.


spin
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Old 09-10-2008, 05:05 PM   #10
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Spin, all you can do is nitpick. You are dodging the issue.

Do you have an alternate explanation or not?

If so what is it?

You refuse to commit yourself to say anything much. Once you do we can examine your explantion. Until you do; you have no explanation for the Bezan reading.

The Bezan reading is explainable by an Aramaic original where the Aramaic word could be feminine or masculine. You need to provide another explanation, or admit you have none. You have done neither.
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