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Old 04-21-2009, 01:03 PM   #31
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If Paul was already preaching and had already wrote about Jesus abolishing the Law, the author of gLuke, who supposedly knew Paul, still wrote that Jesus was circumcised on the eight day.
Jesus was still a Jew. There is no contradiction here.
No, Jesus was not a real Jew. Jesus was a backdated story about the offspring of the Holy Ghost based on a mis-interpreted/mis-transliteration passage found in Isaiah 7.14.

The author could have written that an angel told Mary not to circumcise Jesus which would be consistent with being influenced by the Pauline gospel of uncircumcision.

The gender of Jesus cannot even be ascertained.

In a fiction story, the author can make stuff up.

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Why? That is a strange thing to expect, since chronologically, Paul came after Jesus. Besides, I agree that there is no Pauline influence on the gospels. Paul and the gospels are largely independent.
If Paul had already started many churches, had preached all over the Roman Empire, even Jerusalem and had written letters to all his churches about his revelations from Jesus and had a inseparable companion named "Luke" who supposedly wrote a Jesus story, then it MUST be expected that the later fabricated stories would show some Pauline influence.

There is absolutely no Pauline influence not even from the author of Luke who was supposed to know Paul.

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That Jesus was circumcised show influence by Hebrew scriptures and not Pauline where the Laws have no effect whether Jew or Gentile.
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They were influenced by Hebrew scriptures insofar as, since Jesus was a Jew, he would have followed the Hebrew scriptures. Again, there is no contradiction here at all.
Of course there are problems with your theory.

The author Luke supposedly knows Paul.

Paul preached all over the Roman Empire, including Judea.

Paul started many churches all over the Empire.

Paul wrote about the revelation of Jesus, the gospel of uncircumcision.

Yet when the companion of Paul, Luke, fabricated his story of Jesus, the very Luke shows no Pauline influence at all.

Instead, the gospel of Luke shows Markean or Matthean influences quite consistent with the view that gMark and gMatthew preceeded gLuke.

Pauline priority is illogical and contradicts general expectations as established by the gospel stories.

It is completely unrealistic for the Roman Empire to have been flooded with Pauline theology, and churches based on that theology, decades before the gospels, yet for his inseparable partner Luke to have depended upon on authors who themselves seemed totally unaware of Paul.

The gospel priority is logical, even within the gospels itself.
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Old 04-21-2009, 01:21 PM   #32
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The not one jot stuff is classic Maccabean zealotary that conflicts with the other Jewish views of the time in the sermon of the mount which feels neo pythagorean gnostic essene luvvy dovey stuff and the eating corn on the sabbath stuff which is actually spirit of the law Pharasee stuff.

So the gospels actually look like mish mashes of conflicting viewpoints pushed together - some form of peace treaty document between factions?

And the earlier comments about Paul showing different traditions is also of note.

Is the entire new testament pre existing works edited together? Revelation is possiblty originally Jewish for example. Acts and Luke as new bits?

http://www.geocities.com/b_d_muller/rjohn.html

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From The Catholic Encyclopedia "... the theory advanced by the German scholar Vischer. He holds the Apocalypse to have been originally a purely Jewish composition, and to have been changed into a Christian work by the insertion of those sections that deal with Christian subjects. From a doctrinal point of view, we think, it cannot be objected to. There are other instances where inspired writers have availed themselves of non-canonical literature. Intrinsically considered it is not improbable. The Apocalypse abounds in passages which bear no specific Christian character but, on the contrary, show a decidedly Jewish complexion."
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Old 04-21-2009, 01:23 PM   #33
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Justin simply did NOT know one single thing about Paul. Nothing.
Fine. I’m cool with that. But the fact remains that those passages in Matthew appear to be ridiculing Paulism. And the ridicule does not appear to be limited to the theology – Matthew appears to be ridiculing the specific name ‘Paul.’
You claim of ridicule of Paul does not make sense whatsoever.

The author of Matthew made no reference to any character called Paul or called any specific character "little" or the "least".

It is virtually impossible to say with any certainity that the author Matthew is referring to Paul.

Below are examples of direct unequivocal ridicule, and where authors appear to be influenced by one or the other.


Mt 16:23 -
Quote:
But he turned, and said unto Peter, Get thee behind me, Satan: thou art an offence unto me: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but those that be of men.
Mr 8:33 -
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But when he had turned about and looked on his disciples, he rebuked Peter, saying, Get thee behind me, Satan: for thou savourest not the things that be of God, but the things that be of men.
Lu 4:8 -
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And Jesus answered and said unto him, Get thee behind me, Satan: for it is written, Thou shalt worship the Lord thy God, and him only shalt thou serve.
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Old 04-21-2009, 01:41 PM   #34
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The writer who used the name Paul lived after the writings of Justin Martyr, since there is no Pauline influence on his writings.
Marcion relied on Paul (and Luke) to support his beliefs.

Justin Martyr opposed Marcion's beliefs.

Therefore, the assertion above is simply false.

The influence is simply not direct but that is probably too nuanced a notion for those who prefer a simplistic view.
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Old 04-21-2009, 01:42 PM   #35
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As a Jew, of course Jesus would have been circumcised (as Paul would have been, since he, too, was a Jew). Paul's point was that Gentile converts to Christianity shouldn't be circumcised.
Factually incorrect - the Jewish civil war was won by the Maccabees who were complaining about the many Jews taking up Greek ways and dumping barbaric practices like circumcision. We do not know if they were able to impose 100% circumcision. This was by the 50's if Paul can be dated to then a three hundred year old argument.

In fact I would argue that we do not know how many Jews were actually circumcised in the majority of Jews who have for hundreds of years before Jesus is alleged to have lived across the med and ane.

In fact the alleged disapora may not have happened as the Palestinian Jewish population has for a long time been a minority population - yes there were refugees but they moved into much larger pre existing Jewish communities.
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Old 04-21-2009, 01:47 PM   #36
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In the Hadrianic war of 132-135 AD 580,000 Jews were slain, according to Cassius Dio (lxix. 14). According to Theodor Mommsen, in the first century C.E. there were no less than 1,000,000 Jews in Egypt, in a total of 8,000,000 inhabitants; of these 200,000 lived in Alexandria, whose total population was 500,000. Adolf Harnack (Ausbreitung des Christentums, Leipzig, 1902) reckons that there were 1,000,000 Jews in Syria at the time of Nero in 60's AD, and 700,000 in Palestine, and he allows for an additional 1,500,000 in other places, thus estimating that there were in the first century 4,200,000 Jews in the world. Jacobs remarks that this estimate is probably excessive.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Histori...on_comparisons
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Old 04-21-2009, 02:29 PM   #37
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As a Jew, of course Jesus would have been circumcised (as Paul would have been, since he, too, was a Jew). Paul's point was that Gentile converts to Christianity shouldn't be circumcised.
Factually incorrect - the Jewish civil war was won by the Maccabees who were complaining about the many Jews taking up Greek ways and dumping barbaric practices like circumcision. We do not know if they were able to impose 100% circumcision. This was by the 50's if Paul can be dated to then a three hundred year old argument.
But there is an interesting passage in Josephus where persons were forced to be circumcised by Jews.

The Life of Flavius Josephus 23.3.
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At this time it was that two great men, who were under the jurisdiction of the king [Agrippa] came to me out of the region of Trachonius, bringing their horses and their arms, and carrying with them their money also; and when the Jews would force them to be circumcised, if they would stay among them, I would not permit them to have any force put upon them, (11) but said to them,

"Every one ought to worship God according to his own inclinations, and not to be constrained by force; and that these men, who had fled to us for protection, ought not to be so treated as to repent of their coming hither."

And when I had pacified the multitude, I provided for the men that were come to us whatsoever it was they wanted, according to their usual way of living, and that in great plenty also.
Some of the words of Josephus seem to answer this question by Paul.

Romans 3:1 -
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What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
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Old 04-21-2009, 03:13 PM   #38
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Justin simply did NOT know one single thing about Paul. Nothing.
Fine. I’m cool with that. But the fact remains that those passages in Matthew appear to be ridiculing Paulism. And the ridicule does not appear to be limited to the theology – Matthew appears to be ridiculing the specific name ‘Paul.’
Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven.
This has nothing to do with Paulism. In any case the word for "least" in the passage bears no resemblance to "Paul" which it would have to do to make an actual pun.

What is actually happening in the passage is this:

1) The Pharisees (some at least) claim that the gospel that Jesus preached did away with the law.
This is true even of the gospel as preached by the Ebionites. We know this from the Pharisees themselves - c.f. the story of Gamaliel II and the gospel.

2) Jesus teaches that it is the Pharisees who make the law void by their traditions. In the next part of the discourse Jesus explains what "every jot and tittle" and the "least of these commandments" means - that being angry with your brother or calling him a term of abuse is a serious violation of God's law, and he then goes on to be similarly strict about adultery, divorce and the making of oaths..

Even if you do not personally believe that Jesus made this speech, the only sensible way of interpreting the intended meaning is to read it as if it were a speech from Jesus. Reading the text as if the reader was intended to believe that the text was written long after the event and about matters not explicitly mentioned is wrongheaded.

Peter.
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Old 04-21-2009, 03:20 PM   #39
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You claim of ridicule of Paul does not make sense whatsoever.
Sure it does. Matthew’s ‘Jesus’ said that whoever teaches others to break the commandments (whoever teaches others to break the Law) will be called least.

Paul fits that description because his name meant least and because he taught others that they were released from the Law.

Please adjust your counterarguments.
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Old 04-21-2009, 03:51 PM   #40
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Fine. I’m cool with that. But the fact remains that those passages in Matthew appear to be ridiculing Paulism. And the ridicule does not appear to be limited to the theology – Matthew appears to be ridiculing the specific name ‘Paul.’
Anyone who breaks one of the least of these commandments and teaches others to do the same will be called least in the kingdom of heaven.
This has nothing to do with Paulism. In any case the word for "least" in the passage bears no resemblance to "Paul" which it would have to do to make an actual pun.
The word (ὁ ἐλάχιστος = the least (worthy)) is the same Paul uses in 1 Cor 15:9 to describe himself in relation to other apostles. A number of exegets consider the passage of 1 Cor 15:3-11 to have been interpolated as it appears to derogate to Paul. Outside of this passage, in the genuine Paulines, he never compares himself unfavourably with anyone.

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