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05-27-2008, 11:54 AM | #11 |
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The Bartimaeus-Timotheus connection is interesting--may be another reference to Paul--maybe Timothy was a pre-Christian (or pre-Pauline) apostle for some salvific teaching or other, and this is supposed to link Paul to that--so Bartimaeus represents Paul's conversion from that to the Jesus group.
I think probably Bartimaeus is supposed to represent a historical personage (who probably was not named "Bartimaeus"), but it's hard to say. I should also note at this point that Paul's sight does get healed by a specific person in Acts, namely: Ananias of "Damascus". Make of that what you will. |
05-27-2008, 04:55 PM | #12 |
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What I find interesting about Bartimaeus is that the use of this name fits a potential pattern with the author's use of Barabbas as well, in both cases the names being symbolic.
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05-28-2008, 06:43 AM | #13 |
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Certainly that's possible. But is there any good reason to believe that the author of Mark wrote originally in Aramaic? I know that's church tradition, but is there anything of substance behind it?
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05-28-2008, 08:38 AM | #14 |
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It isn't necessary for Andrew's point. All that is needed is the assumption (IIUC, it is a reasonable one) that his readers knew both languages in order to understand the double meaning. The text could still be written entirely in Greek.
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