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12-17-2008, 01:15 PM | #251 | |||
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As a soldier I experienced much abuse. I did not see it as immoral because it was designed to teach me not to drop grenades so close to wear I was standing. is it immoral that I be tackled, hit, called names. It depends on the severity of the situation. I expect OT slaves and masters were in severer siuations that you and I and it is difficult to gauge what a beating consists of. If you acknowledge that there are siuations that men can be imprisoned, then you will have to come up with a universal rule on punishment. A slap on the wrist, waterboarding, what is it? Not causing any permanent harm sounds like a step in the right direction. |
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12-17-2008, 01:54 PM | #252 | |
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Andrew Criddle |
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12-18-2008, 03:39 AM | #253 | ||||
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slavery in the old testament included selling, ownership of wives and kids (if not previous to slavery), in addition to clearly inhumane treatment being allowed. That's not the same as today's military, but it is similar to the military in some other countries and times. I doubt you had to leave any kids born to your wife while you were in the military to be permanent members of the military, right? Were you ever beaten so severly that you could not get up for 23 hours? Questions open for Steve from before:
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AC- Thanks for that tidbit. I hadn't heard of that. Equinox |
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12-18-2008, 07:49 AM | #254 | |
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12-18-2008, 07:53 AM | #255 |
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12-18-2008, 08:34 AM | #256 | ||||||||
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I think you are not understanding that Paul did not share his views on slavery. If he had, slavery would have continued just the same. Quote:
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If you punish your kids with a painful spanking, does this constitute immoral punishment? If not, give me a hard line on when it becomes immoral for all cultures. Sounds like it is somewhere between sore for 5 minutes from spanking and 23 hours. You are in judgement of the law, so give me your universal decree. You must have one since you claim that the OT has crossed it in Exo 21. |
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12-18-2008, 09:17 AM | #257 |
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"Do not spare your son from the rod" even children were whipped. Just because beatings (whipping) were condoned does not mean that masters had a right to abuse their slaves. The fact that slaves were to be SET FREE if injuries resulted shows that masters had not this right because if they had, severe beatings or abuse that in most cases results in injury would not have justified or made legal the freeing of slaves such a law would not even had been established. Compare this to slaves in America, who had toes cut off, broken bones etc the anti runaway slave laws, who were kidnapped, held, and sold against their wills.....this is completely different from the VOLUNTARY slave system in Israel. You skeptics are comparing apples to oranges.
Also those American "christians" who tried to justify slavery by calling blacks "Caananites" were deceiving themselves because 1. Blacks are not Caananites 2. That prophecy isnt even about slavery its about Israel's future rule over the Gentiles that includes the "Caananites." Just because pseudo christians supported slavery does not mean that God does. Paul did not condone slavery, he only encouraged slaves, the oppressed to suffer evil....Just as Jesus did. You skeptics are way off. |
12-18-2008, 10:01 AM | #258 |
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"Just because pseudo christians supported slavery does not mean that God does." (sugarhitman)
Did they think they were "pseudo christians"? I dare say they believed themselves to be just as much "proper" Christians as sugarhitman considers himself to be a "proper" Christian. And the way they read the Scriptures, they believed that the Jewish god did support slavery - the sort of slaveery they were practising. How can that be? Because the Word of God is ambiguous in so many repects other than the commandments given to Moses - not just the Ten Commandments but the multitude of others listed in Levitus and Deuteronomy. Here's something from Chapter 6, Leviticus, which leaves no room whatesover for misinterpration: " 22: And the LORD spake unto Moses, saying, 23: Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, Ye shall eat no manner of fat, of ox, or of sheep, or of goat. 24: And the fat of the beast that dieth of itself, and the fat of that which is torn with beasts, may be used in any other use: but ye shall in no wise eat of it. 25: For whosoever eateth the fat of the beast, of which men offer an offering made by fire unto the LORD, even the soul that eateth it shall be cut off from his people. 26: Moreover ye shall eat no manner of blood, whether it be of fowl or of beast, in any of your dwellings. 27: Whatsoever soul it be that eateth any manner of blood, even that soul shall be cut off from his people." So, we see that in some matters, God was absolutely specific. Yet when it comes to slavery, there are such ambiguities that for 1,800 years after the death of Christ (or thereabouts) Christians throughout Christendom believed that the versions of slavery they were practising were acceptable to their god. Why did their god not set the record straight for 1,800 or so years if indeed slavery as it developed was something it abhorred? |
12-18-2008, 10:15 AM | #259 | |
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I know this is a long thread with a lot of disscussion going on, would it help you if I posted some pictures to help you understand? [lol] |
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12-18-2008, 10:18 AM | #260 | ||
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