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Old 07-02-2006, 04:14 AM   #1
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How did "Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city. (Revelation 22:14), in the KJV--become "Blessed are they who wash their robes, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city" in the newer versions of the Bible? (NIV, ASV, etc)
Anyone?
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Old 07-02-2006, 04:34 AM   #2
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Hey the bible is 95% accurate remember?
http://www.iidb.org/vbb/showthread.php?t=169753

Therefore they are both correct. Youare just interpreting them wrong heathen.
or something like that
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Old 07-02-2006, 04:39 AM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Fr.Andrew
How did "Blessed are they that do his commandments, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city. (Revelation 22:14), in the KJV--become "Blessed are they who wash their robes, that they may have right to the tree of life, and may enter in through the gates into the city" in the newer versions of the Bible? (NIV, ASV, etc)
Anyone?
From here:

Quote:
Revelation 22:14:
TEXT: "·Blessed [are] those who rinse their robes"
EVIDENCE: S A 1006 2053 most lat vg cop(south)
TRANSLATIONS: ASV RSV NASV NIV NEB TEV
RANK: B
NOTES: "·Blessed [are] those who do his commandments"
EVIDENCE: 046 1 94 1611 1854 Maj one lat syr(ph,h) cop(north)
TRANSLATIONS: KJV RSVn

COMMENTS: The two readings are pronounced similarly in Greek. It is not hard to see how PLUNONTESTASSTOLASAUTON might have changed into POIOUNTESTASENTOLASAUTOU (that is, how "rinse their robes" changed into "do his commandments"), especially since "do his commandments" would be much more expected than "rinse their robes." Elsewhere John writes "keep the commandments" (Revelation 12:17; 14:12).
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Old 07-02-2006, 04:54 AM   #4
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John Kesler
From here:
(Fr Andrew): Thanks, John! It's hard to tell, though, by what you posted, whether "wash their robes" became "keep his commandments"--or the other way around?
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Old 07-02-2006, 05:01 AM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Fr.Andrew
(Fr Andrew): Thanks, John! It's hard to tell, though, by what you posted, whether "wash their robes" became "keep his commandments"--or the other way around?
The above quote says that, "[i]t is not hard to see how...'rinse their robes' changed into 'do his commandments' especially since 'do his commandments' would be much more expected than 'rinse their robes.'"

In other words, the more "difficult" reading, "rinse their robes," is believed to be original.
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Old 07-02-2006, 05:15 AM   #6
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Quote:
Originally Posted by John Kesler
The above quote says that, "[i]t is not hard to see how...'rinse their robes' changed into 'do his commandments' especially since 'do his commandments' would be much more expected than 'rinse their robes.'"

In other words, the more "difficult" reading, "rinse their robes," is believed to be original.
(Fr Andrew): Thanks, again! But if "do his commandments" would be much more expected than "rinse their robes", why isn't that believed to be the original? Why is the more difficult--and cryptic--reading assumed to be?
Just curious, here--not meaning to be contentious.
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Old 07-02-2006, 06:18 AM   #7
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Fr.Andrew
(Fr Andrew): Thanks, again! But if "do his commandments" would be much more expected than "rinse their robes", why isn't that believed to be the original? Why is the more difficult--and cryptic--reading assumed to be?
Just curious, here--not meaning to be contentious.
The idea behind the "more difficult reading" criterion is that a scribe is more likely to "correct" a text by making it easier to understand or making it cohere with other texts than to do the opposite. Along the same lines, the shorter version of a text is usually considered to be the original.
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