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Old 03-20-2009, 11:07 AM   #1
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Default John 21, authentic or counterfeit?

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John, are you there?

The authorship of the Gospel of John is questionable in the switch between Chapters 20 and 21. The end of the previous chapter (21:29-31) seems to come to an abrupt halt, as the author declares his reasoning for the composition of the Gospel of John. Verse 30 shares that not all of the miracles which Jesus performed are recorded. The interjection of this verse seems unreasonable, as the next chapter contains an account of yet another miracle.
Source:
http://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/The_Gos...ohn/Chapter_21
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Old 03-20-2009, 12:18 PM   #2
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In a gist note:

1. labyrinth

2. genre (get it? Johnre or Johnra.)

3. sudden change of thought ("--"). Such been what a person (even a writer) does with out explaining it as (during) a sudden change of thought. But a keen reader gets it.

But the reader alone applies a touch alone away from other readers' reading style-manner.

Think on the eagles mention now. Note how "s" not with hue to get a shew (hues, shoo, shoe, hews). Some shoe (expression) by displaying others, by walking in the others place. By wearing on such a display to (like of) the others, since such the others will not bare certain things in view.

A question is... The writer should have been expected to write in a certain fashion "too perfect"? If a write were that perfect, then the writer is no writer. Much more than a writer is a one which tell truth or bare truth. Truth shouldn't be subject to a best writer, especially if it's to be believeable in truth. Or else, is the "too good to be true" thing.

If Jesus were walking today, which person should write should be exclusively a best writer? Or else, the truth is not believeable? Rather the other way around is best. A compounding of truth should flow outside best standards.

Note a difference in a reader:

"educated", "went"

An unfruitful reader reads educated and went. A keen reader reads 'no longer' educating and 'no longer' going.
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Old 03-20-2009, 01:42 PM   #3
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Religious Tolerance
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Note that biblical scholars have concluded that the final verses describing appearances of the risen Christ (Mk. 16:9-20) are an interpolation (a polite term for "forgery"). These verses are not found in the earliest copies of the gospel and the writing style is different. Christian scribes, who were dissatisfied with the abrupt ending to Mark, added them later. Many biblical exegetes think that the last chapter of John (21) is an interpolation as well, added early in the second century.
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Old 03-20-2009, 03:53 PM   #4
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How many counterfeit angels can dance on the head of a counterfeit pin?

After twenty chapters of a highly imaginative fabricated tale, what matter one more of the same stripe?
Both pin and the angels dancing thereon are still only imaginary.
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Old 03-20-2009, 05:15 PM   #5
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Julio View Post
Quote:
John, are you there?

The authorship of the Gospel of John is questionable in the switch between Chapters 20 and 21. The end of the previous chapter (21:29-31) seems to come to an abrupt halt, as the author declares his reasoning for the composition of the Gospel of John. Verse 30 shares that not all of the miracles which Jesus performed are recorded. The interjection of this verse seems unreasonable, as the next chapter contains an account of yet another miracle.
Source:
http://en.wikibooks.org/wiki/The_Gos...ohn/Chapter_21

It is interesting to examine John 21, it seems that parts of the chapter or perhaps the entire chapter was written in response to Marcion's phantom Jesus.

It will be noticed that John's Jesus may have been mistaken or believed to be a phantom in the precceding chapter, John 20.

First look at John 20.19
Quote:
Then the same day at evening, being the first day of the week, when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled for fear of the Jews, came Jesus and stood in the midst....
And now John 20.26
Quote:
26And after eight days again his disciples were within, and Thomas with them: then came Jesus, the doors being shut, and stood in the midst,,
In the only two post-resurrection appearances, the Jesus of John 20 managed to appear before the disciples even though the doors were shut. These appearances are consistent with a phantom.

Now look at John 21, this Jesus appear to have a human body or has the ability to be hungry and did eat.

John 21.4
Quote:
4 But when the morning was now come, Jesus stood on the shore; but the disciples knew not that it was Jesus. 5Then Jesus saith unto them, Children, have ye any meat?...
And John 21.9-14

9As soon then as they were come to land, they saw a fire of coals there, and fish laid thereon, and bread. 10Jesus saith unto them, Bring of the fish which ye have now caught. 11Simon Peter went up, and drew the net to land full of great fishes, a hundred and fifty and three: and for all there were so many, yet was not the net broken. 12Jesus saith unto them, Come and dine. And none of the disciples durst ask him, Who art thou? knowing that it was the Lord. 13Jesus then cometh, and taketh bread, and giveth them, and fish likewise. 14This is now the third time that Jesus showed himself to his disciples, after that he was risen from the dead.[/quote]

So, it seems John 21 was written to dispel the doubt that Jesus was a phantom which would then imply it was written in response to Marcion's Jesus.
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Old 03-20-2009, 08:56 PM   #6
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Not hard to tell a writer (not a best writer) may have different writing styles. Not following a particular single 1 way. Even so in a continue in a work.

Plus, when reading into a layer, just maybe the writer implying a person which may turn anyhow to do any thing. Basically, come any which way he wants. Like turning spirit, then turning human. Or using additional spirit part while also turning in and out of human form.

Note the part concerning "go in and out, and find pasture." The person picks the "in". The "in" may be a gerne to play or an entertainment strictly for thought. The "out" may be then outside the "entertaining the thought" array.


Another part in Luke...

And in hell he lift up his eyes, being in torments...

Note how the reader may even entertain the thought in hell, with painting a perfect picture? Without even entering hell, no?
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Old 03-21-2009, 12:13 AM   #7
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Default Luke 24:43

Luke 24:43 puts Jesus eating fish and honey, afterwards ascending to heaven with that food in his “glorified stomach”.
John, for his part, describes Jesus crossing a wall or a shut door after EATING that food.
If Jesus was a spirit or a so-called “glorified body”, what happened to the food in his “glorified stomach” when he crossed the wall/door?
Also, the short passage in John 20:21, 22, 23 has the hallmark of another posterior forgery.
Check it carefully in the immediate context. I imagine some entrepreneurial bishop of Rome ordering a copyist to insert the passage in the “original” text!
“Then said Jesus to them again, Peace be unto you: as my Father hath sent me, even so send I you.
And when he had said this, he breathed on them, and saith unto them, Receive ye the Holy Ghost:
Whose soever sins ye remit, they are remitted unto them; and whose soever sins ye retain, they are retained.
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Old 03-21-2009, 02:33 AM   #8
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Originally Posted by Toto View Post
Religious Tolerance
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Note that biblical scholars have concluded that the final verses describing appearances of the risen Christ (Mk. 16:9-20) are an interpolation (a polite term for "forgery"). These verses are not found in the earliest copies of the gospel and the writing style is different. Christian scribes, who were dissatisfied with the abrupt ending to Mark, added them later. Many biblical exegetes think that the last chapter of John (21) is an interpolation as well, added early in the second century.
Yea, it’s obviously a different author. Ironically John 21 might be more ‘authentic’ than John 1-20.

There is some excellent information on this subject at The Evolution of Mark. The author (David Ross) argues that John 21 actually preserves the missing ending to Mark.

Again – I think it’s excellent. If anyone is genuinely interested in this stuff they should check it out. If you want to 'cut to the chase' just jump ahead and read this:

http://pages.sbcglobal.net/zimriel/Mark/Mark4.html
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Old 03-21-2009, 03:26 AM   #9
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Loomis View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Toto View Post
Yea, it’s obviously a different author. Ironically John 21 might be more ‘authentic’ than John 1-20.

There is some excellent information on this subject at The Evolution of Mark. The author (David Ross) argues that John 21 actually preserves the missing ending to Mark.

Again – I think it’s excellent. If anyone is genuinely interested in this stuff they should check it out. If you want to 'cut to the chase' just jump ahead and read this:

http://pages.sbcglobal.net/zimriel/Mark/Mark4.html
Read it; thanks for the reference.
Now, Justin Martyr and Papias are the first to quote directly from canonical Mark. That was in the first quarter of the second century.
Since Clement of Rome [90 CE] doesn’t mention anything from the synoptic in his First Letter to the Corinthians [very long text], can we ascertain that there was no gospel in circulation [at least in Rome] until the days of Justin Martyr?
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Old 03-21-2009, 06:55 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Julio View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by Loomis View Post
Yea, it’s obviously a different author. Ironically John 21 might be more ‘authentic’ than John 1-20.

There is some excellent information on this subject at The Evolution of Mark. The author (David Ross) argues that John 21 actually preserves the missing ending to Mark.

Again – I think it’s excellent. If anyone is genuinely interested in this stuff they should check it out. If you want to 'cut to the chase' just jump ahead and read this:

http://pages.sbcglobal.net/zimriel/Mark/Mark4.html
Read it; thanks for the reference.
Now, Justin Martyr and Papias are the first to quote directly from canonical Mark. That was in the first quarter of the second century.
Since Clement of Rome [90 CE] doesn’t mention anything from the synoptic in his First Letter to the Corinthians [very long text], can we ascertain that there was no gospel in circulation [at least in Rome] until the days of Justin Martyr?
Justin Martyr did not quote from any gospel called Mark, he did not mention any author or disciple of Peter called Mark who had written any gospel that was regarded as sacred scripture.

Justin directly quoted from the Memoirs of the Apostles several times in "First Apology" and "Dialogue with Trypho".

First Apology LXVII
Quote:
..And on the day called Sunday, all who live in cities or in the country gather together to one place, and the memoirs of the apostles or the writings of the prophets are read, as long as time permits......
It would appear that the memoirs of the apostles contained many passages that are found in todays gospels according to Matthew, Mark and Luke.

And further, based on Justin, only the so-called apostle John was mentioned by name as the author of a revelation.

There is really no good evidence to state that Justin quoted directly from canonical Mark.
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