FRDB Archives

Freethought & Rationalism Archive

The archives are read only.


Go Back   FRDB Archives > Archives > Religion (Closed) > Biblical Criticism & History
Welcome, Peter Kirby.
You last visited: Yesterday at 03:12 PM

 
 
Thread Tools Search this Thread
Old 10-26-2009, 07:57 AM   #1
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Atlanta
Posts: 2,060
Default Jake Jones tries to reason with aa5874 split from 1 Cor 8 Paul's use of "Father"

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
It is probably undisputed that ONE person wrote most of the Epistles to the Churches, (not the Pastorals),
How can something be "probably undisputed?"

You don't have any evidence that one person wrote most of the Epistles to the Churches or that person even existed. There is no external non-apologetic source that can support your statement.
jakejonesiv is offline  
Old 10-26-2009, 09:36 AM   #2
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
It is probably undisputed that ONE person wrote most of the Epistles to the Churches, (not the Pastorals),
How can something be "probably undisputed?"
When there is a probability that one person wrote most of the Epistles.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
You don't have any evidence that one person wrote most of the Epistles to the Churches or that person even existed. There is no external non-apologetic source that can support your statement.
It has been deduced by analysis, for some time now, that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person.

There is no external corroborative source that can demonstrate or indicate precisely when that person existed or when they wrote these Epistles to the Churches, however it would appear to me or I have deduced that the entire Epistles to the Churches under the name Paul are all later than the middle of the 2nd century or after the writings of Justin Martyr.

And, by the way, there is no external non-apologetic source that can show my statement must be in error.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 10-26-2009, 11:48 AM   #3
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Atlanta
Posts: 2,060
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post

How can something be "probably undisputed?"
When there is a probability that one person wrote most of the Epistles.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
You don't have any evidence that one person wrote most of the Epistles to the Churches or that person even existed. There is no external non-apologetic source that can support your statement.
It has been deduced by analysis, for some time now, that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person.

There is no external corroborative source that can demonstrate or indicate precisely when that person existed or when they wrote these Epistles to the Churches, however it would appear to me or I have deduced that the entire Epistles to the Churches under the name Paul are all later than the middle of the 2nd century or after the writings of Justin Martyr.

And, by the way, there is no external non-apologetic source that can show my statement must be in error.
What you have deduced by analysis is worthless. You have stated that "there is a probability that one person wrote most of the Epistles." I have challenged that statement. You can't shift the burden of proof back to me by "there is no external non-apologetic source that can show my statement must be in error.' That means YOU have no evidence. You haven't even shown that the person existed.
jakejonesiv is offline  
Old 10-26-2009, 01:00 PM   #4
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Atlanta
Posts: 2,060
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by Jane H View Post
The authorship and pre-70 dating of Philippians are not in debate within the world of serious scholarship.
This is an appeal to authority and Ad Hom against AA5874, implying that he is not a serious scholar. AA is merely mistaken when he accepts one of your assumptions, the unity of authorship of the Pauline epistles.
jakejonesiv is offline  
Old 10-26-2009, 03:23 PM   #5
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
.... It has been deduced by analysis, for some time now, that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person.
What you have deduced by analysis is worthless. You have stated that "there is a probability that one person wrote most of the Epistles." I have challenged that statement. You can't shift the burden of proof back to me by "there is no external non-apologetic source that can show my statement must be in error.' That means YOU have no evidence. You haven't even shown that the person existed.
Are you claiming it is worthless for Scholars to give an opinion of authorship based on language, style, contents and theology?

Please read my post carefully.

I did not write "I have deduced" but that "IT has been deduced by analysis," for some time now, that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person.

The language, style, contents and theology have been deduced by Scholars to be similar in several letters to the Churches which in turn makes it HIGHLY PROBABLE that they were written by the same person.

I accept that deduction by Scholars, however I do not accept that they were written in the 1st century.

It is my view that the Pauline letters are ALL later than the middle of the 2nd century.

Now, I think it can be assumed, without need of any proof, that the persons who wrote the Epistles must have existed.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 10-27-2009, 05:55 AM   #6
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Atlanta
Posts: 2,060
Default AA vapors

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post

What you have deduced by analysis is worthless. You have stated that "there is a probability that one person wrote most of the Epistles." I have challenged that statement. You can't shift the burden of proof back to me by "there is no external non-apologetic source that can show my statement must be in error.' That means YOU have no evidence. You haven't even shown that the person existed.
Are you claiming it is worthless for Scholars to give an opinion of authorship based on language, style, contents and theology?

Please read my post carefully.

I did not write "I have deduced" but that "IT has been deduced by analysis," for some time now, that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person.

The language, style, contents and theology have been deduced by Scholars to be similar in several letters to the Churches which in turn makes it HIGHLY PROBABLE that they were written by the same person.

I accept that deduction by Scholars, however I do not accept that they were written in the 1st century.

It is my view that the Pauline letters are ALL later than the middle of the 2nd century.

Now, I think it can be assumed, without need of any proof, that the persons who wrote the Epistles must have existed.
Hi AA,

Your are AAsumptions are worthless because you haven't backed them up with a shred of evidence. Which scholars have deduced which person??? Give me you references not your opinion. You can't even prove that person existed. You can't even provide a name for your non existent person. I notice that you have changed your tune from "one person wrote the Epistles" to "the persons who wrote the Epistles." That is a step in the right direction, but even that is not based on anything tangible, it is all Vapors.
jakejonesiv is offline  
Old 10-27-2009, 06:50 AM   #7
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post

Are you claiming it is worthless for Scholars to give an opinion of authorship based on language, style, contents and theology?

Please read my post carefully.

I did not write "I have deduced" but that "IT has been deduced by analysis," for some time now, that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person.

The language, style, contents and theology have been deduced by Scholars to be similar in several letters to the Churches which in turn makes it HIGHLY PROBABLE that they were written by the same person.

I accept that deduction by Scholars, however I do not accept that they were written in the 1st century.

It is my view that the Pauline letters are ALL later than the middle of the 2nd century.

Now, I think it can be assumed, without need of any proof, that the persons who wrote the Epistles must have existed.
Hi AA,

Your are AAsumptions are worthless because you haven't backed them up with a shred of evidence.
Your response is totally and fundamentally bogus. A complete mis-representation of the facts.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakesjonesiv
Which scholars have deduced which person??? Give me you references not your opinion. You can't even prove that person existed. You can't even provide a name for your non existent person. I notice that you have changed your tune from "one person wrote the Epistles" to "the persons who wrote the Epistles." That is a step in the right direction, but even that is not based on anything tangible, it is all Vapors.
What you claim is totally and fundamentally bogus.

I have not changed my tune AT ALL.

I did NOT claim that one person wrote ALL the Epistles.

Please do not mis-represent my post. I have to repeat myself like a broken record when people refuse to look at what I post.

This is my post. Please read carefully.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874
It has been deduced by analysis, for some time now, that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person.
In the canon of the NT( KJV), I see 9 Epistles to the Churches but 13 epistles under the same name.

I beg of you, please do a little research to find out how it was determined or deduced that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 10-27-2009, 08:52 AM   #8
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Atlanta
Posts: 2,060
Default More vapor

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post

Hi AA,

Your are AAsumptions are worthless because you haven't backed them up with a shred of evidence.
Your response is totally and fundamentally bogus. A complete mis-representation of the facts.
My response is accurate because you haven't presented any facts, just hot air.


What you claim is totally and fundamentally bogus.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
I have not changed my tune AT ALL.

I did not claim that one person wrote all the Epistles.
There you go again, but it is quite tiresome reading you post what you claim. I could care less because all of your claims are vapor.

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post

I beg of you, please do a little research to find out how it was determined or deduced that of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person. .
Begging won't do any good. It is not up to me to do your research for you. You made a claim which you are incapable of defending except by deflection. Give me your references not your opinion. You can't even prove that person existed. You can't even provide a name for your non existent person. And please quit changing your tune.
jakejonesiv is offline  
Old 10-27-2009, 11:36 AM   #9
Contributor
 
Join Date: Feb 2006
Location: the fringe of the caribbean
Posts: 18,988
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post

There you go again, but it is quite tiresome reading you post what you claim. I could care less because all of your claims are vapor.
You could care less?

Again, I did not claim that one person wrote the Epistles, but that It has been deduced, for some time now, that one person wrote MOST OF THE EPISTLES TO THE CHURCHES.

Please do some research. I have done mine.


Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post

I beg of you, please do a little research to find out how it was determined or deduced that of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person. .
Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
Begging won't do any good. It is not up to me to do your research for you. You made a claim which you are incapable of defending except by deflection. Give me your references not your opinion. You can't even prove that person existed. You can't even provide a name for your non existent person. And please quit changing your tune.

I assumed that whoever wrote the Pauline Epistles were human and I have already posted such a statement.

The mere fact that there are Epistles is PROOF that at least one writer existed.

The mere fact that the contents, theology, language and style are similar for most Epistles to the Churches. it can therefore be deduced that one writer wrote most of the Epistles to the Churches.
aa5874 is offline  
Old 10-27-2009, 12:40 PM   #10
Veteran Member
 
Join Date: Feb 2005
Location: Atlanta
Posts: 2,060
Default

Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv View Post

There you go again, but it is quite tiresome reading you post what you claim. I could [not] care less because all of your claims are vapor.
Again, I did not claim that one person wrote the Epistles, but that It has been deduced, for some time now, that one person wrote MOST OF THE EPISTLES TO THE CHURCHES.

Please do some research. I have done mine.
Quit telling me what your opinion is or what your opinion isn't. Don't tell me what has been deduced. You have not presented any references or any facts. You say you have done some research, but you won't give your sources. You can't even tell me the name of your non-existant source because you do not know what you are talking about.

Quote:
Originally Posted by jakejonesiv
It is not up to me to do your research for you. You made a claim which you are incapable of defending except by deflection. Give me your references not your opinion. You can't even prove that person existed. You can't even provide a name for your non existent person. And please quit changing your tune.
Quote:
Originally Posted by aa5874 View Post
The mere fact that the contents, theology, language and style are similar for most Epistles to the Churches. It can therefore be deduced that one writer wrote most of the Epistles to the Churches.
That is not a fact, it is more of your unsupported opinion. I am not going to take your word for it. Stop being evasive and name the writer, name the Epistles, and prove that the contents, theology, language, and style are all by that one writer.
jakejonesiv is offline  
 

Thread Tools Search this Thread
Search this Thread:

Advanced Search

Forum Jump


All times are GMT -8. The time now is 02:51 AM.

Top

This custom BB emulates vBulletin® Version 3.8.2
Copyright ©2000 - 2015, Jelsoft Enterprises Ltd.