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10-26-2009, 07:57 AM | #1 | |
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Jake Jones tries to reason with aa5874 split from 1 Cor 8 Paul's use of "Father"
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You don't have any evidence that one person wrote most of the Epistles to the Churches or that person even existed. There is no external non-apologetic source that can support your statement. |
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10-26-2009, 09:36 AM | #2 | ||
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There is no external corroborative source that can demonstrate or indicate precisely when that person existed or when they wrote these Epistles to the Churches, however it would appear to me or I have deduced that the entire Epistles to the Churches under the name Paul are all later than the middle of the 2nd century or after the writings of Justin Martyr. And, by the way, there is no external non-apologetic source that can show my statement must be in error. |
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10-26-2009, 11:48 AM | #3 | ||
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10-26-2009, 01:00 PM | #4 |
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This is an appeal to authority and Ad Hom against AA5874, implying that he is not a serious scholar. AA is merely mistaken when he accepts one of your assumptions, the unity of authorship of the Pauline epistles.
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10-26-2009, 03:23 PM | #5 | |
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Please read my post carefully. I did not write "I have deduced" but that "IT has been deduced by analysis," for some time now, that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person. The language, style, contents and theology have been deduced by Scholars to be similar in several letters to the Churches which in turn makes it HIGHLY PROBABLE that they were written by the same person. I accept that deduction by Scholars, however I do not accept that they were written in the 1st century. It is my view that the Pauline letters are ALL later than the middle of the 2nd century. Now, I think it can be assumed, without need of any proof, that the persons who wrote the Epistles must have existed. |
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10-27-2009, 05:55 AM | #6 | ||
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AA vapors
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Your are AAsumptions are worthless because you haven't backed them up with a shred of evidence. Which scholars have deduced which person??? Give me you references not your opinion. You can't even prove that person existed. You can't even provide a name for your non existent person. I notice that you have changed your tune from "one person wrote the Epistles" to "the persons who wrote the Epistles." That is a step in the right direction, but even that is not based on anything tangible, it is all Vapors. |
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10-27-2009, 06:50 AM | #7 | ||||
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I have not changed my tune AT ALL. I did NOT claim that one person wrote ALL the Epistles. Please do not mis-represent my post. I have to repeat myself like a broken record when people refuse to look at what I post. This is my post. Please read carefully. Quote:
I beg of you, please do a little research to find out how it was determined or deduced that most of the Epistles to the Churches were written by the same person. |
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10-27-2009, 08:52 AM | #8 | ||
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More vapor
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What you claim is totally and fundamentally bogus. Quote:
Begging won't do any good. It is not up to me to do your research for you. You made a claim which you are incapable of defending except by deflection. Give me your references not your opinion. You can't even prove that person existed. You can't even provide a name for your non existent person. And please quit changing your tune. |
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10-27-2009, 11:36 AM | #9 | |||
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Again, I did not claim that one person wrote the Epistles, but that It has been deduced, for some time now, that one person wrote MOST OF THE EPISTLES TO THE CHURCHES. Please do some research. I have done mine. Quote:
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I assumed that whoever wrote the Pauline Epistles were human and I have already posted such a statement. The mere fact that there are Epistles is PROOF that at least one writer existed. The mere fact that the contents, theology, language and style are similar for most Epistles to the Churches. it can therefore be deduced that one writer wrote most of the Epistles to the Churches. |
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10-27-2009, 12:40 PM | #10 | |||
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