Freethought & Rationalism Archive

Shameless Hussy · 08-24-2004, 02:05 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Clivedurdle

So, the xians caused the temple's destruction?

??????
(I don't know how you could have derived that from what I wrote.)

Shameless Hussy · 08-24-2004, 02:09 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by offa

Pardon me. I really mispelled your name Shameless Hussy, I apologise.

No problem, I was kidding.

Quote:

The Jerusalem that Jesus was crucified at is not the same Jerusalem that Caiaphas dwelt at.

Okay, but as that doesn't really tie in with Brother Daniel's question in the OP (so far as I can see), perhaps it's a topic for another thread? I think we're supposed to try and stay on-topic. It causeth the moderators to rejoice.

Brother Daniel · 08-25-2004, 07:07 AM

Thanks, all, for the links. (Especially the Josephus link - thanks, Asimis.)

Perhaps no one has tabulated the various different ancient answers to the question. Oh well, I had to ask.

offa · 08-27-2004, 05:40 PM

Brother Daniel Some of the ancient writers interpreted the disaster of 70 CE (destruction of the Temple, etc.) as divine punishment (on the Jews) for ... something. Some pointed to the death of Jesus. Others to the death of James. Maybe there were other "explanations".

Can anyone provide a summary of the different variants of the idea, and how they developed? As in, who said what, when?

Just curious.

Jesus was crucified in 33 AD in anothe temple called Jerusalem. James was murdered several years later near this same location. Neither James or Jesus were associated with the Jewish war that began in 70 AD!

offa

WILLOWTREE · 08-27-2004, 06:14 PM

Quote:

Originally Posted by Brother Daniel

Some of the ancient writers interpreted the disaster of 70 CE (destruction of the Temple, etc.) as divine punishment (on the Jews) for ... something. Some pointed to the death of Jesus. Others to the death of James. Maybe there were other "explanations".

Can anyone provide a summary of the different variants of the idea, and how they developed? As in, who said what, when?

Just curious.

Quote:

Matthew 27:24-26

When Pilate saw that he could prevail nothing, but that rather a tumult was made, he took water, and washed his hands before the multitude, saying, I am innocent of the blood of this just person: see ye to it.
Then answered all the people, and said, His blood be on us, and on our children.
Then released he Barabbas unto them: and when he had scourged Jesus, he delivered him to be crucified.

God responded in 70 AD.

The O.T. reveals a definite pattern of God using heathen armies to punish His rebellious people.

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08-25-2004, 07:07 AM	#13
Brother Daniel Senior Member Join Date: Sep 2002 Location: Mi'kmaq land Posts: 745	Thanks, all, for the links. (Especially the Josephus link - thanks, Asimis.) Perhaps no one has tabulated the various different ancient answers to the question. Oh well, I had to ask.

08-27-2004, 05:40 PM	#14
offa Regular Member Join Date: Aug 2000 Location: Monroeville, Ohio, USA Posts: 440	Brother Daniel Some of the ancient writers interpreted the disaster of 70 CE (destruction of the Temple, etc.) as divine punishment (on the Jews) for ... something. Some pointed to the death of Jesus. Others to the death of James. Maybe there were other "explanations". Can anyone provide a summary of the different variants of the idea, and how they developed? As in, who said what, when? Just curious. Jesus was crucified in 33 AD in anothe temple called Jerusalem. James was murdered several years later near this same location. Neither James or Jesus were associated with the Jewish war that began in 70 AD! offa

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