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Old 02-12-2008, 07:57 AM   #91
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Critics will not accept that Zek seperates Babylon from the rest of the nations using the words HE and They. Notice in chapter 5 this saying:" ...And it shall become a spoil to the nations" then compare it to ch 29 verse 18 "...yet he (Neby) had no wages, nor HIS ARMY (not some multi-national force), for Tyrus...." Now go back to ch 26 and see what actions are done under He in verses 7-11.
1. He would destroy the daughters in the FIELD (Old Tyre is not a daughter of the island city because they are the same city see Google maps tour guides. These are the villeges and towns spread out on the mainland). Verse 8
2. He will break down the towers verse 9 (under "HE" there is no destroying the walls)
3. He would kill both civilians and soldiers verse 11

Verse 12 begans with the plundering of Tyre also notice that at this moment "HE" Becomes "THEY" which supports verse 5: "....and it shall become a spoil to the NATIONS." Is this mere coincedense? No Ezekiel knew that Nebby would not spoil Tyre. Think about it if Zek knew that Nebby did not plunder Tyre why would he allow such a very important (The prophets and their work were highly esteemed amongst the Jews,and it was a shameful and dangerous thing to be considered a false prophet.) Work with a very obvious contradiction to go unchanged? Why would his work still have Neby plundering Tyre when two chapters later in his same work say he didnt? I find this type of accusation from critics (the accusation that Zek was somehow to lazy to go back and rewrite his failed prophecy. What logic is in this stupid argument.....none)...petty and weak.

The fact is Babylon is seperated from the "many nations" and the many nations is not some Babylonian multi-national force. When Babylon conquered Jerusalem there is no mention of a multi-national force, but the army of Babylon and the Chaldeans. Nebby was a King of Kings all that means is just that...a king of kings.

And another thing we know (Bible prophecy students) that from verses 7- 14 begins and ends with the mainland city because it was the part that was LAYED in the sea scraped and made like the top of a rock, that was completely destroyed by the nations never to built again. (The freshwater springs are located to the south of the island close to the beach area. These springs were said to be close to or at the mainland city. Which shows just how close this city was on the coast. The city of Sur on the mainland to the north is not the same city as the old one. This is the part of the dual city destroyed by Nebby and the nations. It is now a site to spread nets on...the beach.) From verses 14-21 is soley of the island portion of the city. Chapter 27 which is completly of the island city agrees with verses 19-20 of ch. 26 which says that the island portion of the city would fall deep under the sea.....and everything in it. It all make sense if interpreted correctly. Two portions of the same city, two very different Judgements......and two words to seperate Nebby from the many nations..."He" and "They"
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Old 02-12-2008, 07:58 AM   #92
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OK, I guess that's about as close as we will get to an admission that you were wrong.

...They all say pretty much the same thing as Young's. More diversion?

You're denying that Nebby ruled over many nations?

Are you actually denying the existence of the Babylonian Empire now?

And you're saying that Ezekiel was lying when HE described Nebby as "king of kings" (i.e. an overking, a ruler over many nations)?
I suppose IF you accept TILL's claim that Hebrew has no future tense and IF you accept TILL's "spin" that "the many nations" is only refering to Nebby...
Still blundering onward?

The whole "future tense" issue is a red herring. Till was merely pointing out that we cannot infer that Ezekiel was writing BEFORE the siege began: he could have been referring to an event IN PROGRESS. But even if you prefer to imagine that the use of the future tense in translations WAS justified, THIS MAKES NO DIFFERENCE.

The prophecy failed, in every detail... except for the brief reference to the taking of the mainland settlements prior to the assault on Tyre itself, which may or may not have been written before this happened.
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Originally Posted by arnoldo
...then the prophecy has failed since Nebby didn't destroy the Island Tyre, Alexander the Great did.
Once again: Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.

I'll just repeat that, because it's still not getting through.

Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.

Maybe bold and caps?

ALEXANDER THE GREAT DID NOT DESTROY TYRE.

And just in case you missed it:

ALEXANDER THE GREAT DID NOT DESTROY TYRE.
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo
The following article has some interesting insights into the nature of this debate.

David Thompson: A PROBLEM OF UNFULFILLED PROPHECY IN EZEKIEL:
THE DESTRUCTION OF TYRE (EZEKIEL 26:1-14 and 29:18-20)
Yep. it's another source which says that you are wrong. Why do you keep posting those, but blatantly ignoring what they actually say?
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo's source
If, however, the island stronghold was taken with anything approximating the fierceness and finality Ezekiel predicted, the classical sources are strangely silent concerning the unprecedented feat...

...The question as to whether or not Ezekiel actually envisioned Nebuchadnezzar as the instrument of all the devastation announced in 26:3-14 has naturally been raised by interpreters...

...In this writer's opinion, the subsequent history of Tyre and affirmations one might wish to make concerning the necessity or dependability of biblical prophecy are secondary considerations. They are subordinate to information from the passage itself and its context regarding the question as to whether or not Nebuchadnezzar alone or Alexander the Great and others are in view in the destruction of Tyre. Several features of the passage and its textual transmission lead, in my judgment, to the conclusion that Ezekiel did indeed predict that Nebuchadnezzar would utterly annihilate the arrogant island fortress of Tyre, i.e., that the whole of verses 3-14 has him in mind...

...These considerations taken together: (1) the difficulty of separating the description of Nebuchadnezzar's siege from the utter destruction of island Tyre in view of the overlap of terminology apparently distinctive to that fortress, (2) the rather artificial and fragmentary reading of the text necessitated by the introduction of referents beyond Nebuchadnezzar, and (3) the LXX's witness either to the text or the interpretive tradition which excludes later actors-these considerations lead, it would seem, to the conclusion that Ezekiel envisioned the complete destruction of Tyre at the hands of the Babylonian "King of kings," not at the hands of other invaders such as Alexander the Great.
Does this mean that you have surrendered?
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Old 02-12-2008, 08:10 AM   #93
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Sugarhitman: again, merely repeating falsehoods doesn't make them true. In particular, "he" and "they" have already been explained (and I notice you're still ignoring the fact that in the LXX, which is OLDER than the Masoretic text that modern Bibles are derived from, "he" is used throughout).

And you're still pretending that Tyre was a "dual city" but blatantly ignoring the fact that ALL the streets of this "dual city" HAS TO INCLUDE those on the ISLAND.
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman
Nebby was a King of Kings all that means is just that...a king of kings.
...A phrase which means a king over many nations. So what you're saying is "Nebby wasn't a king over many nations, he was just a king over many nations".
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Originally Posted by sugarhitman
And another thing we know (Bible prophecy students) that from verses 7- 14 begins and ends with the mainland city because it was the part that was LAYED in the sea scraped and made like the top of a rock, that was completely destroyed by the nations never to built again.
Nope. Ezekiel was referring to the island, but he was a false prophet. And the mainland was indeed rebuilt. Ushu was a "line of suburbs", spread out along the coast: it wasn't just "where the springs were".
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Old 02-12-2008, 08:25 AM   #94
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I guess I can agree that the prophecy failed IF we assume the following.

A. All prophecy was meant to be fullfilled at a single point in time. There can be no fullfilment of prophecy across multiple points of time in the future. For example Yeshua could not have fullfilled some bible prophecy 2000 years ago and left the remainder of the prophecy to be fulfilled at a so called "Second Coming."

B. There is no future tense in Hebrew, thus Zekey 26 meant that Tyre was going to be destroyed in a single event,not multiple events in the future.

C. Many Nations= Babylon. Many nations does not mean that Alexander the Great would come at a later time and destroy Tyre.

These assumptions was made by a <edit> and so far everyone is merely parroting his lame arguments.
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Old 02-12-2008, 08:51 AM   #95
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Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
I guess I can agree that the prophecy failed IF we assume the following.

A. All prophecy was meant to be fullfilled at a single point in time. There can be no fullfilment of prophecy across multiple points of time in the future. For example Yeshua could not have fullfilled some bible prophecy 2000 years ago and left the remainder of the prophecy to be fulfilled at a so called "Second Coming."
Not quite. Try this: "A. When a prophecy says that a certain person will do something, said prophecy is only fulfilled when said person does said thing."

Quote:
B. There is no future tense in Hebrew, thus Zekey 26 meant that Tyre was going to be destroyed in a single event,not multiple events in the future.
Whether or not Hebrew has a future tense doesn't matter. You could try this instead: "B. When Ezekiel 26 says Nebuchadrezzar is going to do something, the prophecy can only be fulfilled by Nebuchadrezzar."

Quote:
C. Many Nations= Babylon. Many nations does not mean that Alexander the Great would come at a later time and destroy Tyre.
Yep, you got that one right. Remember that Nebuchadrezzar is "king of kings", eg. the nation of which he is king has power over other nations and their kings.

Quote:
These assumptions was made by a <edit> and so far everyone is merely parroting his lame arguments.
And why do you think he's a <edit>? Because of your knowledge of Hebrew grammar and ancient Middle-Eastern history? Or because his arguments are inconvenient for you? You'll have to forgive me for not trusting your evaluation of sources, because almost every time you give one to try to back you up, it turns out to actually work against your point.
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Old 02-12-2008, 09:23 AM   #96
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Originally Posted by arnoldo View Post
I guess I can agree that the prophecy failed IF we assume the following.

A. All prophecy was meant to be fullfilled at a single point in time. There can be no fullfilment of prophecy across multiple points of time in the future. For example Yeshua could not have fullfilled some bible prophecy 2000 years ago and left the remainder of the prophecy to be fulfilled at a so called "Second Coming."
That's just the usual excuse for prophecy-failure. It doesn't work here because (among other reasons) a named person, Nebuchadrezzar of Babylon, failed to perform various tasks HE was prophesied to perform.
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo
B. There is no future tense in Hebrew, thus Zekey 26 meant that Tyre was going to be destroyed in a single event,not multiple events in the future.
Nope, that WAS NOT Till's argument.

I'll say that again:

Nope, that WAS NOT Till's argument.

You have NO EXCUSE for repeating this blunder over and over again.

Till was merely pointing out that the text does not distinguish between armies yet to come, and armies that were already on the scene. EVEN IF you imagine that Nebby's armies had yet to arrive, the "prophecy" STILL fails.
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo
C. Many Nations= Babylon. Many nations does not mean that Alexander the Great would come at a later time and destroy Tyre.
...Except that Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.

Did I not repeat that often enough to sink in?

Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Alexander the Great DID NOT destroy Tyre.
Quote:
Originally Posted by arnoldo
These assumptions was made by a <edit> and so far everyone is merely parroting his lame arguments.
You have lost, arnoldo. Hurling insults (at a registered IIDB member, incidentally) will not change that fact.

It's time to give up, arnoldo.
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Old 02-12-2008, 09:31 AM   #97
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No, it isn't. It's based upon actual knowledge of the subject matter.


Which doesn't help you, because the Babylonian Empire was composed of many nations. We have been through this before: the vassal states were required to send military units to Nebuchadnezzar for use in his army.


Nope, that is a reference to waves of attacking military units, each from the different nations that formed part of the great Babylonian army. It's just like in World War 2 invasion of Normandy - when "many nations" attacked Nazi Germany, but they were still under the command of the Supreme Allied Commander of Europe, Eisenhower.

Ezekiel clearly identifies Nebuchadnezzar and his army as the agent of destruction for Tyre. There is no escaping that fact. There is also no escaping the fact that the prophecy failed. :rolling:
Do you have any historical/archaelogical evidence that these "vassal states" sent ships to felt fight against the Island of Tyre for 13 years or did they all use horses?
You want evidence that ancient Near Eastern countries used horses in their military?
:rolling: :rolling: :rolling: :rolling:

Quote:
Also please note that the bogus Till argument ignores modern translations and chooses a versions made over one hundered years ago.
I already addressed this. Your complaint about Till is misplaced. Hebrew has no future tense. That does not mean it cannot express the future. The past tense is used in this prophecy. Till's point is that Hogan has a twisted interpretation that is rooted in that linguistic anomaly.

Quote:
Yeah right, many nations doesn't mean "many nations."
What's next 2 + 2 = 5 :huh:
It does mean "many nations". It just doesn't mean many nations over a series of centuries. It means "many nations" as they were represented by Babylon's army. This has been explained twice now in this thread; several times in other threads.

Can someone be deaf over the internet? I think you're pushing the bounds of that question.
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Old 02-12-2008, 09:39 AM   #98
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Originally Posted by makerowner View Post
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I guess I can agree that the prophecy failed IF we assume the following.

A. All prophecy was meant to be fullfilled at a single point in time. There can be no fullfilment of prophecy across multiple points of time in the future. For example Yeshua could not have fullfilled some bible prophecy 2000 years ago and left the remainder of the prophecy to be fulfilled at a so called "Second Coming."
Not quite. Try this: "A. When a prophecy says that a certain person will do something, said prophecy is only fulfilled when said person does said thing."



Whether or not Hebrew has a future tense doesn't matter. You could try this instead: "B. When Ezekiel 26 says Nebuchadrezzar is going to do something, the prophecy can only be fulfilled by Nebuchadrezzar."



Yep, you got that one right. Remember that Nebuchadrezzar is "king of kings", eg. the nation of which he is king has power over other nations and their kings.

Quote:
These assumptions was made by a <edit> and so far everyone is merely parroting his lame arguments.
And why do you think he's a <edit>? Because of your knowledge of Hebrew grammar and ancient Middle-Eastern history? Or because his arguments are inconvenient for you? You'll have to forgive me for not trusting your evaluation of sources, because almost every time you give one to try to back you up, it turns out to actually work against your point.
I forgot the other assumption one needs to make to determine the Tyre prophecy failed. The Tyre prophecy was mainly against the walls and streets of the city of Tyre, since Tyre exists today, prophecy failed. Nevermind that Zeke was against the political/economic/religious system that was in place in Tyre and Nebby took the princes into exile into Babylon and set up HIS own rulers in Tyre.
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Old 02-12-2008, 09:50 AM   #99
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Do you have any historical/archaelogical evidence that Nebby used ships to attack Tyre for 13 years, or any attempt to build a mole?
1. I don't have to produce any such evidence. You (and sugarhitman) are the ones claiming that he had no ships. That's your claim; your burden of proof.

2. Why do you think a mole was required to conduct a siege? What a strange comment; it only shows that you don't know the definition of hte word "siege".

3. Your own argument works against you: if you believe that Nebuchadnezzar had no navy and no mole, then that would explain why the siege lasted 13 years. Nebuchadnezzar wasn't able to gain a decisive military advantage against the island without a navy. And the Tyrians weren't able to kick him off the mainland, because Babylon's land army was superb. So the two sides sat in a stalemate for 13 years, neither one being able to achieve a decisive victory.

Quote:
Also please provide any historical/archaelogical evidence that a so called "truce" was called between Tyre and Nebby.
You've already been given the citations. Tyre did not fall, yet its princes were deported to Babylon. Your own bible says that Nebuchadnezzar failed to plunder Tyre. If he had conquered it, then he would have plundered it. Therefore the evidence is that he failed to conquer it.

Quote:
Minimalist love to make empty claims but never back up their gibberish with any historical/archaelogical facts.
What a load of bullshit. These recurring threads have been filled with historial and archaeological facts - you just haven't been interested in reading them. Intellectual cowardice is the root cause; not a lack of evidence.
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Old 02-12-2008, 09:56 AM   #100
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Not quite. Try this: "A. When a prophecy says that a certain person will do something, said prophecy is only fulfilled when said person does said thing."



Whether or not Hebrew has a future tense doesn't matter. You could try this instead: "B. When Ezekiel 26 says Nebuchadrezzar is going to do something, the prophecy can only be fulfilled by Nebuchadrezzar."



Yep, you got that one right. Remember that Nebuchadrezzar is "king of kings", eg. the nation of which he is king has power over other nations and their kings.



And why do you think he's a <edit>? Because of your knowledge of Hebrew grammar and ancient Middle-Eastern history? Or because his arguments are inconvenient for you? You'll have to forgive me for not trusting your evaluation of sources, because almost every time you give one to try to back you up, it turns out to actually work against your point.
I forgot the other assumption one needs to make to determine the Tyre prophecy failed. The Tyre prophecy was mainly against the walls and streets of the city of Tyre, since Tyre exists today, prophecy failed.
Wrong. That is not an assumption required to prove its failure.

The skeptic emphasis on walls and streets is to respond to fundies like yourself who think that there is some difference between walls, streets, island and mainland.
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