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Old 08-19-2012, 09:56 PM   #1
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Default Does this make sense?

Can anyone explain to me how this passage makes sense?

Quote:
15 John testified concerning him. He cried out, saying, “This is the one I spoke about when I said, ‘He who comes after me has surpassed me because he was before me.’”) 16 Out of his fullness we have all received grace in place of grace already given. 17 For the law was given through Moses; grace and truth came through Jesus Christ. 18 No one has ever seen God, but the one and only Son, who is himself God and[b] is in closest relationship with the Father, has made him known.
Particularly the bolded part.
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Old 08-19-2012, 11:34 PM   #2
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Default

Try some different translations:

http://bible.cc/john/1-16.htm
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