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Old 11-21-2007, 06:20 AM   #1
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Default Why I believe that the Gospels are original

From here:

The Incompatibility of Bible Contradictions and Fiction
Atheists, or critics of the Bible and primarily the Gospel accounts, really love to make the following claims, usually simultaneously:


The Gospels contain contradictions, and

The Gospels are fictitious.
In this essay, I aim to demonstrate that both of these cannot simultaneously be true, for they are in contradiction to the other. Let's address the first.

<snip - please consult the link>

Speaking of Tekton...

"You might be a fundamentalist atheist if when a Christian's interpretation of a passage (based on the social/literary context) solves one of your favorite contradictions, it is only their personal interpretation, and can be dismissed as such. But your interpretation (based on a "plain" reading of the text) to arrive at the contradiction in the first place is entirely objective, and is obviously THE correct interpretation." - J.P. Holding
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Old 11-21-2007, 06:26 AM   #2
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The Gospels are original what?
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Old 11-21-2007, 06:32 AM   #3
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
So skeptics, if you want to argue with me about the Gospels, do not assert that the Gospels are fiction while spontaneously asserting that the Gospels contain contradictions. You are speaking nonsense.


I was watching a movie with a car chase where in one scene, the car careens off of a guard rail on the driver's side.

In the next scene, the same car still has it's showroom finish on the driver's side.

So... :wave:
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Old 11-21-2007, 06:32 AM   #4
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[QUOTE=Anti-anti-theist;4977323]
...
Let's put all of this in argument form.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
The Gospels contain contradictions.
True.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
The Gospels are fictitious.
Also true.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
If the Gospels are fictitious, then they were either written separately or together.
True regardless of whether they are fictional or not. Non sequitor.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
If they were written separately, there is no explanation for the similarities between the stories.
Absurd on the face of it. Else we could not explain the existence of plagiarism lawsuits. Counter-example: Gone With the Wind, the screenplay for Gone With the Wind, and The Wind Done Gone [or whatever it was called]. ALL have similarities, NONE were written simultaneously with the others.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
If the Gospels are fictitious, they must have been written together.
Unsupported assertion, and complete irrelevency.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
If the Gospels were written fictitiously in collaboration, the contradictions we find between the stories are either as a result of deliberate insertion or error.
Deliberate insertion defies any logical sense for obvious reasons.
Absurd and unsupportable. Else there would be no cases of collaborative lying.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
Error defies any logical sense, since they were written together, eliminating the possibility of error.
Aburd and unsupportable, else all multi-author works would be inerrant.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
Therefore, the Gospels are not fictitious.
Unsupported by the premises.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
The Gospels are based on actual experiences.
Irrelevent. ALL writing is based on actual experiences, even writings about impossible experiences. Consult any work of psychopathology or any work on the basics of phenomenological philosophy. Or any number of other sources, included Freud.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Anti-anti-theist View Post
The Gospels were written independently.
Unsupported by the premises and irrelevent in the extreme.

So, not much to your "argument", is there?

no hugs for thugs,
Shirley Knott
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Old 11-21-2007, 06:38 AM   #5
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Quote:
The feeding of the five thousand is the only miracle, other than the resurrection, that is recorded in all four Gospels.
How about feeding the four thousand, found in both gMatthew and gMark? And walking on water? And healing Peter's mother-in-law? And on and on.

You've read the gospels but conclude that the feeding of the 5 thousand is the only miracle perfomed by Jesus that is found in all 4 gospels?? 'Fraid your arguments fail to be convincing in the least since you don't know your subject matter a'tall.
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Old 11-21-2007, 06:48 AM   #6
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Does this site have an award for worst argument?
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Old 11-21-2007, 07:02 AM   #7
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The author has heard of "Markan priority", but hasn't heard of the Synoptic Problem?

In a nutshell: "Matthew" and "Luke" are both based on Mark (and another shared source, "Q", inferred from stuff they both contain that isn't in Mark).

But "Matthew" and "Luke" are independent from each other.

That's why, when they invent details that aren't in Mark, some of those details (the ones that weren't in "Q") contradict.

And John is different again. However, that doesn't make it entirely independent: obviously, "Mark" and "John" both had access to the same basic story. But that doesn't make the original story true.
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Old 11-21-2007, 07:10 AM   #8
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I am currently reading Heracles by Euripides (in translation)and using the same "logic" as shown in the OP I can now prove that Heracles and the Greek Pantheon actually existed .
Heracles appears in 3 plays by Euripides, Alcestis ,Heracles,and Children of Heracles
In addition Heracles appears in 4 other plays by Sophocles(Women of Trachis & Philocetes). and Aristophanes (Birds & Frogs) .

There are some inconsistences and similarities in these plays,therefore

Quote:
Here's where the two ideas contradict. If the Heracles plays were written as fiction, then they must have been written in cooperation. For how else could all seven of the plays contain the same events and statements of Heracles if they were invented independently? It would be mindbogglingly improbable for three people who were inventing a guy named Heracles up to all decide that he cleaned the Augean stables without talking to one another about it...
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Old 11-21-2007, 07:21 AM   #9
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But Hercules does exist! Who let Atlas off for a bit? Jeanette Winterson has written about it and I have her book Weight and anyone can ask her directly!
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Old 11-21-2007, 07:36 AM   #10
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Quote:
Originally Posted by Jack the Bodiless View Post
The author has heard of "Markan priority", but hasn't heard of the Synoptic Problem?

In a nutshell: "Matthew" and "Luke" are both based on Mark (and another shared source, "Q", inferred from stuff they both contain that isn't in Mark).

But "Matthew" and "Luke" are independent from each other.

That's why, when they invent details that aren't in Mark, some of those details (the ones that weren't in "Q") contradict.

And John is different again. However, that doesn't make it entirely independent: obviously, "Mark" and "John" both had access to the same basic story. But that doesn't make the original story true.
BUt by your own arguements aren't these just assumed assertians with no valid prove to back them up.

This is just somebodies baseless viewpoint of how in some way the 4 independent sources could have come from one, but there is no factual prove of this at all! and the similarities of the stories which could equally be exactly what they appear to be just 4 peoples different account of an actual event they either saw themselves or got from an eyewitness.

Personally i prefer the simpler view because the way you describe it is very complex but ultimately self-defeating arguement without prove.

BTW anti-anti-thiest i love your original statement which just shows how much athiest will tie themselves up in knots to disprove something to the point of ridiculous.
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