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10-10-2004, 11:35 AM | #91 | |
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Where Greek has "Herodians", the Old Syriac Mk 12:13 is using an expression /d'byt hrwds/ = "of the house of Herod". Parallel OS Mt 22:16 is using a different expression, /(b:d) d'hrwds/ = "servants of Herod" So how does this help your case? So, yes, by all means, let's look at some specific cases. Enough of generalities. Yuri. |
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10-10-2004, 12:59 PM | #92 | |
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Your Old Syriac examples help against you. spin |
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10-10-2004, 01:07 PM | #93 |
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I see no evidence that Matthew was based on Mark. It's much more likely that both depend on a common source.
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10-10-2004, 01:18 PM | #94 | |
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spin |
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10-10-2004, 01:22 PM | #95 | |
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In my view, both Mt and Mk depend on a common source, that was produced in Jerusalem ca. 100 CE, perhaps a bit earlier than 100 CE. This common source "M" was produced by the Jerusalem Church. But the earliest gospel probably was produced in Syria, and is best preserved by Lk. Those who had produced these earlier source documents probably included the disciples of the original disciples of Jesus. I'm not interested in the historicity of Jesus debate right now. My working hypothesis is that there was a HJ. Regarding this whole debate, here's a good quote from Bertrand Russell for you, "The most savage controversies are those about matters as to which there is no good evidence either way." Regards, Yuri |
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10-10-2004, 01:33 PM | #96 | |
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Or they both borrowed it from a common source. You can prove nothing with an argument like this. Yuri. |
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10-10-2004, 01:42 PM | #97 | |||
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Whatever the case, if you posit the above you don't hold to an Aramaic or Hebrew original, though you say: IMO what is obvious is that both Mt and Mk were based on a shared source, that could very easily have been in Aramaic or Hebrew. Quote:
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Have I misrepresented you? spin |
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10-10-2004, 02:35 PM | #98 | ||
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Do you explain the Luke-Josephus similarities as the latter copying from the former? |
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10-10-2004, 04:44 PM | #99 | ||
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Thanks |
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10-10-2004, 04:47 PM | #100 | |||
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Thanks. |
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