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02-10-2011, 10:23 AM | #1 |
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Have you read Valentian's Gospel of Truth, if so
did you like it? Bart Ehrman called it a real treasure in his Lost Scriptures.
What are your thoughts? are there any other 1-2 century early christian text you like? except http://www.gnosis.org/naghamm/got.html
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02-10-2011, 03:26 PM | #2 | ||
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Yes. It is out of the Nag Hammadi Codices which were manufactured in the mid 4th century.
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I would be extremely grateful if anyone can answer any of the following questions.... Q1: Does anyone know approximately how many of the 50 odd texts of the 4th century NHC's are now roundly conjectured by one academic and scholar after another, using the faithful Eusebius and his "research" as a guide, as being merely copies of centuries old anonymous texts? Q2: Does anyone know of any text of these 50 odd (less with duplicates) in the Nag Hammadi Codices which contemporary academics and scholars agree was authored during the 4th century when the books were physically manufactured, and not in the 1st or 2nd (or even 3rd century)? Q3: Does anyone in this forum appreciate the scale of the sheer improbability in this trend by modern scholarship, Q4: Do more than a few people here think that it is somewhat illogical to expect these 4th century hand-manufactured codices, each bound with leather covers and bindings, to contain authorship from the same epoch (i.e. century) as their manufacture? |
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02-10-2011, 05:50 PM | #3 |
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Pete - give it a rest. No one agrees with you that the date of a Coptic translation of a document has to be the date of the composition of the document.
Yes, it is illogical to "expect these 4th century hand-manufactured codices, each bound with leather covers and bindings, to contain authorship from the same epoch (i.e. century) as their manufacture." |
02-10-2011, 06:13 PM | #4 |
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It never ceases to amaze me. The feigned certainty. The determination to promote stupid opinions. I'd like to see the day he realizes how big of a waste of time all of this was.
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02-10-2011, 07:28 PM | #5 | ||
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Getting back to Valentinus, I find the theology rather difficult.
April DeConick has an interesting comment here Quote:
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02-10-2011, 07:49 PM | #6 |
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The most interesting parts of the Gospel of Truth - for me at least - is when obvious points of contact with Irenaeus emerge. The one being added to the ninety nine sheep as transference to the right hand is very interesting. The counting method where ninety nine is 'left' and one hundred 'right' is referenced. But here is something else. The three letter root of the word 'right' - yamin = 100 = y (= 10) + m (= 40) + n (= 50). In short the origins of the gospel are developed from an Aramaic source.
I am not even sure that the text is Valentinian per se. While the testimony matches what appears in Irenaeus it is filed under 'the Marcosians.' The fact that Irenaeus reports the 'Gospel of Truth' in association with the Valentinians isn't proof that it originated within a circle associated with a certain 'Valentinus.' Irenaeus is an unreliable witness in many respects in spite of occassional 'hits' with reality. |
02-10-2011, 07:54 PM | #7 |
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Another parallel in the Torah - Deut 32.2 'mimino' which contains the word yamin within it. The change of pronunciation has no significance.
The word mimino מימינו in Det 32.2 means “on his right”. It is a simple statement of being saved by the right arm ימין of God or the arm זרוע of God means being saved by something that feels like direct intervention. The angels are to God’s right, meaning they are the agents of his will. |
02-10-2011, 08:58 PM | #8 | |||||
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* Does Ireneus cite a passage or text from "The Gospel of Truth"? * How can we be sure that there were not two (or more) "Gospels of Truth" (it looks like a popular name). * It is a reasonable statement that the orthodox heresiologists "twisted" the histories of their heretical opponents. * The conjecture that history happened as Eusebius asserts in the records of Irenaeus is not necessarily true. * It is thus nowhere close to an undisputed fact that NHC 3.1 was first authored centuries before it was physically published. The certainty obviously has always rested with the orthodox assertions. I am disputing that these orthodox assertions and conjectures are factual. I have provided the grounds for my dispute with their findings. Quote:
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02-10-2011, 10:12 PM | #9 | |
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Valentinus_(Gnostic)
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02-10-2011, 11:58 PM | #10 |
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Since Pete feels free to develop his own threads within topics I thought I would continue to inquire whether y-m-n (= 100) can exist as a real word. You see there really is no such word as YOD-MEM-NUN. If you look up Jastrow's Jewish Aramaic Dictionary for instance, you will find that there is an entry but we should disregard what Jastrow says about the root YOD-MEM-NUN.
It would be better to say take notice of what he says the way he meant it. Jastrow’s root entries are not always real words. They are the root, which can’t stand in isolation. Even when he gives what looks like the past tense of the Qal, it is often just an abstraction. Quite often the meaning assigned to the root is NOT ANY ATTESTED MEANING, only a reasonable assumption about the history of the meaning before its use in written records. So his root YOD-MEM-NUN certainly exists, but what looks like an actual form, the first word of the second column of p. 580, with the vowels of the past tense Qal, IS NOT A REAL VERB. What is really used is the pi’el, cited straight after this. Look at the examples. You will see that even of the pi’el, only THE PASSIVE PARTICIPLE (i.e. the pu’al participle) is actually used, and even that bears a meaning NOT THE SAME AS JASTROW’S ASSUMED ORIGINAL MEANING. The meaning “skilful” is dubious. The meaning “the one actually meant if some other is not actually specified” or “the one naturally thought of, because the most eminent holder of the title” fits every cited instance. If the verb is to mean “to go to the right” it must be in the hif’il. That means past tense hemin, future tense yemin, participle memin (MEM-YOD-MEM-YOD-NUN). The corresponding Aramaic word must be in the Af’el. [[There is an alternative set of forms in Biblical Hebrew, but still in the hif’il, from a variant derived root ALEF-MEM-NUN, but this is not the same as the root ALEF-MEM-NUN In the Qal stative participle amen means certain (but said of a concept, not a person, and used as a single word meaning “it is certain”). The nif’al participle ne’eman means faithful (said of a person). This word is applied to Moses in Numbers 12. The hif’il means to believe. None of these are connected with the Biblical Hebrew hif’il forms meaning to go to the right. It is true that the forms are the same: past tense he’emin (HE-ALEF-MEM-YOD-NUN), future tense ya’amin (YOD-ALEF-MEM-YOD-NUN), participle ma’amin (MEM-ALEF-MEM-YOD-MEM).]]. So I come back to the point that there is no past tense yaman with three letters in any meaning at all, and no participle yamen with three letters in any meaning at all. To find the intended word with the numerical value of a hundred you will have to think about the theory a bit more and look for an important technical or symbolic term. Can it really be thought that the term would have been hidden so inadequately as to be guessed in a few minutes? No, only deep knowledge of the SYSTEM OF THOUGHT will give the answer. The answer will turn out to be impossible to guess if you don’t think in terms of the symbolic structure, and easy to see if you do think in that way. The country of Yemen comes from the word 'right' in Arabic and interestingly it is claimed that Syria (al-Sham) comes from the word 'left' - relative to Mecca. |
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