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Old 04-06-2006, 09:59 AM   #11
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Quote:
Originally Posted by judge
The greek version is a translation from the Aramaic version.

Here is the original Aramaic of John 1.
It should be obvious which is translated from which.

As happens elsewhere in John the greek translator provides an explanation for the foreign word.

The Aramaic just has it all in Aramaic.
So you think!

Tell me then why does GJohn say things like "for fear of the Jews" and other such statements?

Or maybe the Aramaic version has something like "for fear of ourselves"
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Old 04-06-2006, 04:25 PM   #12
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Originally Posted by NOGO
So you think!

Tell me then why does GJohn say things like "for fear of the Jews" and other such statements?

Or maybe the Aramaic version has something like "for fear of ourselves"
Many non jews spoke Aramaic. So it would make no sense to put it as you have.
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Old 04-07-2006, 02:37 PM   #13
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Many non jews spoke Aramaic. So it would make no sense to put it as you have.
Really?

How many of them could write in Aramaic?

So the Gospels were written by non-Jewish Aramaic speaking people.
And who was the target audience?
Other non-Jewish Aramiac speaking people!
Please get real!
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Old 04-07-2006, 06:16 PM   #14
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Originally Posted by judge
Many non jews spoke Aramaic. So it would make no sense to put it as you have.
You are going to have to produce some evidence for that statement. Even Jews in the diaspora seemed to have limited to no ability to speak Aramaic.

Present some evidence.

Julian
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Old 04-08-2006, 01:40 AM   #15
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Quote:
Originally Posted by judge
Many non jews spoke Aramaic. So it would make no sense to put it as you have.
This says nothing. You're going to have to describe who these people are, what kind of Aramaic they spoke, and when did they speak it. Bona fortuna.
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Old 04-09-2006, 04:10 PM   #16
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Quote:
Originally Posted by NOGO
Really?

How many of them could write in Aramaic?
Here is some info on the Aramaic language.



Quote:
Originally Posted by NOGO
So the Gospels were written by non-Jewish Aramaic speaking people.
I did not say that.

Quote:
Originally Posted by NOGO
And who was the target audience?
Other non-Jewish Aramiac speaking people!
Please get real!
Whoever wrote the gospels probably did so in their first tongue. There is a wealth of evidence for this.

See here
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Old 04-09-2006, 04:12 PM   #17
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Originally Posted by Julian
You are going to have to produce some evidence for that statement. Even Jews in the diaspora seemed to have limited to no ability to speak Aramaic.

Present some evidence.

Julian
One can start here. Aramaic language.

OTOH can you present some evidcne for your assertion re: diaspora jews.
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Old 04-10-2006, 10:11 AM   #18
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Well, maybe we can agree on the following which would prevent me from digging through my books.

Aramaic, in addition to Greek, was certainly spoken in the Levant, probably as far north as Edessa and Aleppo. It stretched even further east. The syriac NT known as the Christian Palestinian Aramaic is attestation to the fact that it was spoken in those regions. As we move into Asia Minor and towards Rome and Gaul in Europe and towards Carthage on Africa's coast Aramaic is no longer common, even among the Jews descended from the Middle East several generations earlier.

Can we agree on this?

Julian
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Old 04-10-2006, 08:42 PM   #19
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Quote:
Originally Posted by NOGO
Really?

How many of them could write in Aramaic?

So the Gospels were written by non-Jewish Aramaic speaking people.
And who was the target audience?
Other non-Jewish Aramiac speaking people!
Please get real!
The evidence seems to indicate IMHO that the gospels were written in Aramaic. therefore those who wrote them most probably had Aramaic as their first tongue.

These wrtings were no doubt translated into other tongues as time went on.
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Old 04-10-2006, 08:49 PM   #20
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Originally Posted by Julian
Well, maybe we can agree on the following which would prevent me from digging through my books.
Yes I think we can agree that people other than Judeans spoke Aramaic at that time, particularly to the east.

Quote:
Originally Posted by Julian
The syriac NT known as the Christian Palestinian Aramaic is attestation to the fact that it was spoken in those regions.
I am unaware of this version. As far as I am aware the NT used in the East is and was the Peshitta


Quote:
Originally Posted by Julian
As we move into Asia Minor and towards Rome and Gaul in Europe and towards Carthage on Africa's coast Aramaic is no longer common,
Yes.


Quote:
Originally Posted by Julian
even among the Jews descended from the Middle East several generations earlier.
I have seen difffering opinions on this, but for the sake of this thread I can accept this.
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